PEOPLE & ENVIRONMENT

People and Environment

Environment is the sum total of living and non-living components surrounding an organism.
Components of Environment
Different organisms live in different types of surroundings such as air, water and soil. Different kinds of living
organisms share these surroundings. The surroundings are the “environment” of an organism.
Environment has two components
(i) Physical or abiotic (non-living) components and (ii) living or biotic components.
Abiotic components of environment are air, water, soil, energy radiation, etc.
Biotic components of environment are microbes (such as bacteria, algae and fungi), plants, animals, etc.
Environment consists of four segments such as
(i) Biosphere (ii) Atmosphere (iii) Hydrosphere, and (iv) Lithosphere
Biosphere: All the parts of the earth are not suitable for survival of organisms. Some parts are too hot or very cold
to support life. The part of earth on which organisms can survive and reproduce is called biosphere.
Survival of organisms depend upon a delicate balance between themselves and with the various components of the
environment. Any disturbance, damage or adverse change in the quality of environment poses a threat to the
survival and well-being of organisms. Therefore, any threat of degradation or damage to environment should be a
cause of concern to all of us.
Atmosphere: Atmosphere is the only place where free oxygen and water vapour exist.
Atmosphere is a thin layer of air (mixture of gases) around the earth which is a great source to all living organisms.
Hydrosphere: Water plays an important role in the biosphere, without it life is impossible.
Hydrosphere is the part of earth on which all types of water resources exists, viz., oceans, seas, rivers, lakes,
glaciers, ice caps, ground water, etc.
Lithosphere: Soil is a part of lithosphere which supports life.
Lithosphere is the part of the earth where all types of minerals, metals, organic matters, rocks, soils, etc. exist
Natural Resources
A resource can be defined as ‘any natural or artificial substance, energy or organism, which is used by human being
for its welfare.
Types of Natural Resources
Resources
Natural Artificial
(e.g. coal) (e.g. electricity)
Exhaustible Inexhaustible
(Petroleum) (e.g. solar energy, wind, rainfall, tidal energy)
 Renewable Non-renewable
(e.g. wind, water, forests) (e.g. coal, petroleum, iron, biological species).
 Inexhaustible Resources
The resources which cannot be exhausted by human consumption are called inexhaustible resources. These
include energy sources like solar radiation, wind power, water power (flowing streams) and tidal power, and
substances like sand, clay, air, water in oceans, etc.
 Exhaustible Resources
On the other hand, there are some resources, which are available in limited quantities and are going to be
exhausted as a result of continuous use. These are called exhaustible resources. For example, the stock of
coal in the earth is limited and one day there will be no more coal available for our use.
 Renewable Resources
Some of the exhaustible resources are naturally regenerated after consumption and are known as renewable
resources. e.g. Forest trees and plants that make a forest may be destroyed but new ones grow in their place.
But if forest is totally cut down to get land for construction of buildings, it is lost forever. Some other examples
are fresh water, fertile soil, forest (yielding wood and other products), vegetation, wildlife, etc.
 Non-renewable Resources
The resources, which cannot be replaced after the use, are known as non-renewable Resources. These include
minerals (copper, iron etc.) fossil fuels (coal, oil etc.). Even wildlife species (rare plants and animals) belong to
this category.
We have always been using different forms of energy obtained from various sources for our daily activities like cooking,
heating, ploughing, transportation, lighting, etc. For example, heat energy required for cooking purpose is obtained
from firewood, kerosene oil, coal, electricity or cooking gas. LPG (liquefied petroleum gas) We use animal power
(horse, bullock, etc.) for transportation and for running minor mechanical devices like the Persian wheel for irrigation
or for running a “kolhu” for extracting oil from oilseeds. Different forms of these energies are obtained from various
sources. We will discuss about them in detail.
Types of Energy Sources
There are two main categories of energy sources:
(i) Conventional Sources of Energy, which are easily available and have been in usage for a long time.
(ii) Non-Conventional Sources of Energy, that are other than the usual, or that are different from those in
common practice.
The table below summarises the list of both the above categories of energy resources.
Various types of Energy Sources
Sources of Energy
Conventional Energy Non-Conventional
Energy
Conventional Non- Conventional  Solar Energy
renewable Energy Renewable Energy  Hydel Energy
(Mostly fossil fuels found under the
Ground)
(Mostly non-fossil fuels seen above the
Ground)
 Wind Energy
 Nuclear Energy
Examples: Coal, Oil, Natural gas etc.
Examples: Firewood, Cattle Dung,
Farm
 Hydrogen Energy
 Geothermal Energy
Vegetable Wastes,  Biogas
Wood charcoal, etc
 Tidal Energy
 Bio-fuel
Conventional Sources of Energy
Conventional sources of energy have been in used since ancient times. Most important among them are the fossil
fuels.
Fossil Fuels
Fossil fuels are the fossilised remains of plants and animals, which over millions of years have been transformed
into coal, petroleum products and natural gas.
Coal is the most abundant fossil fuel. It is widely used for combustion in cooking and industrial activities. There are
different types of coal products such as coal gas, coal tar, benzene, toluene, etc., which are used for various
purposes.
Oil and Natural gases are formed from plants and animals which once lived in the tropical seas. Oil (or petroleum)
is a source of countless products. Apart from petrol, diesel and other fuels, petroleum products include lubricants,
waxes, solvents, dyes, etc. Petroleum reserves are supposed to last for another 100 years or so.
Natural gas is often found with petroleum. The gas mainly contains methane. Apart from serving as fuel in several
industries, it is being increasingly used as domestic fuel in many countries including India. United States of America
is the largest producer as well as consumer of natural gas.
Now-a-days in big cities and towns it is being supplied through pipelines which is called Piped Natural Gas (PNG).
The natural gas is also used as a fuel to run vehicles. It is known as Compressed Natural Gas (CNG). It is accepted as
an economical and less polluting fuel for transport.
The Liquefied Petroleum Gas (LPG) is the common cooking gas used in Indian homes. It is a mixture of propane
and butane gases kept under pressure in liquid form, but they burn in gaseous form. This gas is made available in a
specific container for domestic as well as industrial uses. It is a byproduct of petroleum refineries
Non-Conventional Sources of Energy
We have already learnt known about conventional sources of energy, whether renewable or non-renewable (coal, oil,
etc.), which are fast depleting and will not lastlong. Therefore, greater utilisation of non-conventional sources of energy
(solar, wind, hydro, geothermal, etc) will have to be used.
1. Solar Energy
Solar energy is the ultimate source of all energy on earth. Firewood, coal, oil or natural gas are the products of plants
and other organisms, which had used solar energy for the synthesis of organic molecules during photosynthesis.
Even today it will turn out to be the most important answer to problems of energy except nuclear energy.
The solar energy has the following advantages:
(i) It is abundant
(ii) It is everlasting
(iii) It is available almost everywhere.
(iv) It is free from political barriers.
2. Hydel /Hydro Energy
The generation of electricity by using the force of falling water is called hydro- electricity or hydel power. It is
cheaper than thermal or nuclear power. For its generation dams are built to store water, which is made to fall to
rotate turbines that generate electricity.
3. Wind Energy
Wind as an energy can be utilised in our daily life by converting it into mechanical energy. This mechanical energy is
used to generate electricity, raise water from wells and rivers for irrigation and other purposes. Windmills have been
in use since early times to provide power for grinding grains. It is also used for grain cutting and shelling. In India a
large number of windmills are being constructed on the sea beach and hilly areas.
Minimum wind speed required for operating the windmill is 7 km/hour. A windmill can draw water upto a maximum
depth of 55 feet and the output is 4000-9000 litres (of water) per hour.
4. Tidal Energy
Tidal energy is one that is produced by making the use of water movement from a high tide to a low tide. Ocean
waves and tides can be made to turn a turbine and generate electricity. Areas where rivers flow into the sea
experience waves and tides and electricity can be generated there. It has much potential. As you know wehave a
large coastline and major river systems in our country, electricity can be generated on a large scale from waves and
tides.
5. Nuclear Energy
Radioactive elements like uranium and thorium disintegrate spontaneously releasing large quantities of energy. This
energy can be trapped to produce electricity. 25% of world’s thorium reserve is found in our country, which can be
utilised to generate electricity. Most advanced countries have nuclear power stations. We too have some in India, for
example, Tarapur (Maharashtra), Kalpakkam (Tamil Nadu), Narora (Uttar Pradesh), Kota (Rajasthan).
Approximately 3% of India’s electricity comes from nuclear power and about 25% is expected to come by 2050.
Installation costs of nuclear power stations are very high, but maintenance costs are relatively low. If not carefully
maintained, these also have an inherent risk of causing radioactive pollution.
6. Hydrogen Energy
Hydrogen is the primary fuel for the hydrogen based fuel cells and power plants. Power can be generated for
industrial, residential and transport purposes by using hydrogen.
7. Geothermal Energy
This is the energy derived from the heat in the interior of the earth. In volcanic regions, springs and fountains of hot
water called “geysers” are commonly found. These eruptions of hot steaming water can be used to turn turbines and
produce electricity in geothermal power plants. In this method cold water is allowed to seep through the fissures in
the rocks till it reaches the hot rocks in the lower layers. Water gets heated and gets converted into steam which
forces out to the surface to be used in power generation. Besides the superheated steam of hot springs can also
generate electricity. There are 46 hydrothermal areas in India where the water temperature normally exceeds 150
degree centigrade. Electricity can be generated from these hot springs.
8. Biogas
Another form of non-conventional energy is biogas. It is produced by the microbial activity on cattle dung in a
specially designed tank called digester. A mixture of water and cattle dung is poured in this digester where anaerobic
decomposition takes place and biogas is generated. This gas contains 55 – 70 percent methane, which is
inflammable and it is generally used as cooking gas and for generation of electricity. The “waste” left in the tank after
the generation of biogas is used as manures. Thus, biogas plant provides us both the fuel and the manure. Biogas
plants are becoming very popular in rural India.
9. Bio-fuel
The hydrocarbons present in such plants can be converted into petroleum hydrocarbons. This liquid hydrocarbon is the
bio-fuel and the plants producing it are called petro-plants. The plant species, Jatropha curcus is the most suitable
one, which yields bio-diesel. The Indian Oil Corporation is carrying out experiments for preparation of bio-diesel
from various vegetable oils extracted from rice bran, palm, karanjia, sunflower etc.
Pollution and Pollutants
The addition of unwanted substances in a concentration that has an adverse effect on organisms and
environment is called pollution.
TYPES OF POLLUTION
 Air pollution
 Water pollution
 Land pollution
 Noise pollution
Sources of Air Pollution
The sources of air pollution can he divided into two categories (i) natural, and (ii) human-
made
(i) Natural sources
(i) Ash from burning volcanoes, dust from storm, forest fires
(ii) Pollen grains from flowers in air are natural sources of pollution
(ii)Anthropogenic (human-made) sources
(i) Power stations using coal or crude oil release CO2 in air
(ii) Also furnaces using coal, cattle dung cakes, firewood, kerosene, etc.
(iii) Steam engines used in railways, steamers, motor vehicles, etc. give out CO2.
(iv) So do Motor and internal combustion engines which run on petrol, diesel, kerosene. etc. Vegetable oils,
An undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics
of the environment especially air, water and land that may adversely affect
human population and the wild life, industrial processes, cultural assets
(building and monuments), is called pollution.
The agents that pollute the environment or cause pollution are called

inflammable and it is generally used as cooking gas and for generation of electricity. The “waste” left in the tank after
the generation of biogas is used as manures. Thus, biogas plant provides us both the fuel and the manure. Biogas
plants are becoming very popular in rural India.
9. Bio-fuel
The hydrocarbons present in such plants can be converted into petroleum hydrocarbons. This liquid hydrocarbon is the
bio-fuel and the plants producing it are called petro-plants. The plant species, Jatropha curcus is the most suitable
one, which yields bio-diesel. The Indian Oil Corporation is carrying out experiments for preparation of bio-diesel
from various vegetable oils extracted from rice bran, palm, karanjia, sunflower etc.
Pollution and Pollutants
The addition of unwanted substances in a concentration that has an adverse effect on organisms and
environment is called pollution.
TYPES OF POLLUTION
 Air pollution
 Water pollution
 Land pollution
 Noise pollution
Sources of Air Pollution
The sources of air pollution can he divided into two categories (i) natural, and (ii) human-
made
(i) Natural sources
(i) Ash from burning volcanoes, dust from storm, forest fires
(ii) Pollen grains from flowers in air are natural sources of pollution
(ii)Anthropogenic (human-made) sources
(i) Power stations using coal or crude oil release CO2 in air
(ii) Also furnaces using coal, cattle dung cakes, firewood, kerosene, etc.
(iii) Steam engines used in railways, steamers, motor vehicles, etc. give out CO2.
(iv) So do Motor and internal combustion engines which run on petrol, diesel, kerosene. etc. Vegetable oils,
An undesirable change in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics
of the environment especially air, water and land that may adversely affect
human population and the wild life, industrial processes, cultural assets
(building and monuments), is called pollution.
The agents that pollute the environment or cause pollution are called
domestic burning of coal, kerosene oil, firewood, cow dung cakes, etc. are carbon monoxide (CO), carbon dioxide
(CO2), sulphur dioxide (SO2), etc.The pollution due to these pollutants causes suffocation, eye and lung diseases
and low visibility.
Effects of Air Pollution
Major effects of air pollution on human health, plants and other animals is given below -
Some major air pollutants, their sources and effects
Pollutant Source Harmful effect
Carbon compounds - Automobile  Respiratory problems
 Green house effect
global warning and
climate change
 Respiratory problems in humans
 loss of chlorophyll in plants
(chlorosis)
 Acid rain
 Irritation in eyes and lungs
 Low productivity in plants
 Acid rain damages material
(metals and stone)
 Respiratory problem
 Cancer causing properties
(CO and CO2) exhausts
burning of
wood and coal
Sulphur power plants
compounds and refineries
(SO2 and H2S) Volcanic
eruptions
Nitrogen Compound - Motor vehicle
(NO and N2O) exhaust,
atmospheric
reaction
Hydrocarbons - Automobiles
(benzene, ethylene) and petroleum
industries
Sources of Water Pollution
There are two sources of water pollution on the basis of origin of pollutants:
(i) Point sources. and (ii) non-point sources.
(i) Point sources. Those sources which discharge water pollutants directly into the
water are known as point sources of water pollution. Oil wells situated near water
bodies, factories. power plants, underground coal mines, etc. are point sources of
water pollution.
(ii) Non-point sources. Those sources which do not have any specific location for
discharging pollutants, in the water body are known as non-point sources of water
pollution. Run-offs from agricultural fields, lawns, gardens, construction sites, roads
and streets are some non-point sources of water pollution.
Water Pollutants
River, lake and sea water may be polluted in many ways.
 Domestic sewage discharged into rivers from areas located on its banks
 Industrial wastes effluents from urban areas containing high concentration of oil, heavy metals and detergents
 Minerals, organic wastes and crop dusting from agricultural fields with phosphate and nitrogen fertilizers that
reach lakes, rivers and sea (water becomes deoxygenated and poisonous, thus, cannot support aquatic life)
 Chemical fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides, herbicides and plant remains
 Industrial waste water containing several chemical pollutants, such as calcium,magnesium, chlorides, sulphide,
carbonates, nitrates, nitrites, heavy metals and radioactive waste from nuclear reactor.
 Excretory wastes of humans and animals in water bodies
 Disposal of urban and industrial waste matter into water bodies
Some major disturbances in the ecosystem due to water pollution
Fertilizers and pesticides are widely used in agriculture. Their excessive use for increasing agricultural yield
has led to the phenomenon of eutrophication and biomagnification.
Sources of Industrial Pollution
Pollutant Sources Cause Effect
Nitrates,
phosphates,
ammonium salts
Agricultural
fertilizers, sewage,
manure
Plant nutrients Eutrophication
Animal manure
and plant
residues
Sewage, paper mills,
food processing
wastes
Oxygen
deficiency
Death of aquatic
animals
Heat Power plants and
industrial cooling
Thermal
discharge
Death of fish
Oil slick Leakage from oil
ships
Petroleum Death of marine life
due to non-availability
of oxygen dissolved in
water
Type of Industry Inorganic pollutants Organic pollutant
Mining Chlorides, various metals, ferrous
sulphate, sulphuric acid, hydrogen
sulphide, ferric hydroxide surface
wash offs, suspended solid,
chlorides and heavy metals
Iron and Steel Suspended solids, iron cyanides, Oil, phenol and
thiocyanate, sulphides, oxides naphtha.
of copper, chromium., cadmium
and mercury.
Chemical Plants Various acids and alkalies,
chlorides,
Aromatic
sulphates, nitrates of metals, compounds
phosphorus, fluorine, silica and
suspended particles
Pharmaceuticals Protein, carbohydrates,
organic solvents
intermediate products, drugs and
antibiotics.
Soap and
Detergents
Tertiary ammonium compound
alkalies.
Fats and fatty
acids, glycerol,
phosphates,
polysulphonated
hydrocarbons.
Food processing Highly putrescible
(easily rots) organic
matter and pathogens.
Paper and Pulp Sulphides and Bleaching Liquors Cellulose fibre,
bark, wood sugars
organic acids,
Pollutant Source Diseases in humans
Lead Industrial waste Nervous disorders,
Kidney failure.
blood poisoning
Tin Industrial dust Affects central nervous system
(CNS) Affects, vision
Mercury Industrial discharge Affects central nervous system and
peripheral nervous system,
kidney failure,
Numbness of lips, muscles and
limbs, Blurred vision
Arsenic Industrial discharge Respiratory and skin cancer.
Nervous disorder
Nickel Aerosols, industrial dust Pulmonary disorders, dermatitis
Cadmium Industrial discharge Kidney disorders,
Pulmonary and skeletal diseases
Uranium, thorium Radioactive waste Leucoderma, skin cancer
MajorWater Pollutants their Sources and Effects
Water Borne Diseases
A. Bacterial Diseases
Disease
Typhoid
Causative
organism
Salmonella typhi
Mode of spread
Contaminated
food,
Symptoms
Continuous fever which
increases
water, milk,
unwashed raw
vegetables and
flies
day by day Temperature higher
in
evening than morning, body
ache, headache and
constipation.
Haemorrhage from an ulceration
in small intestine
Cholera Vibrio cholerae Water or food con-
taminated by
bacteria from tools
of cholera patient
Painless diarrhoea , vomiting,
30-40 stools per day which soon
becomes typically watery and
colourless with flakes of mucous
floating in them
Bacterial
Diaorhoea
Shigella
spp.
Contaminat
ed
food,
Diarrhoea,
with blood
and
dysentry
Diaorhoea
water and
by
direct
mucous in
the stools
along with
p
e
r
s
o
n
a
l
c
o
n
t
a
c
t
s
e
v
e
r
e
g
r
i
p
p
i
n
g
p
a
i
n
i
n
t
h
e
a
b
d
o
Shigella spp. Contaminated
food, water and
by direct personal
contact
Diarrhoea, with blood and
dysentry mucous in the stools
along with severe gripping pain
in the abdomen. Stools not too
frequent (4-10 per day), faecal
matter scanty. Patient looks ill
Leptospirosis Leptospira Rodents primary
hosts-carry
organisms in
kidneys. Infection
by wading or
swimming in water
contaminated with
rodent urine
Fever, pain in legs, nausea,
vomiting are common,
congestion of the conjunctival
blood vessels around corneas of
the eyes
B. Viral diseases:
Infective
Hepatitis
Hepatitis virus Food and water
contaminated
with virus in
stools
Loss of appetite, nausea,
vomiting and diarrhoea,
accompanied with fever. Urine
dark coloured. Eye and skin
appear yellow
C. Protozoan diseases:
Amoebic
dysentery
Entamoeba
histolytica
Ingestion of
cysts
in food and
water
Abdominal discomfort and
diarrhoea,
with or without blood or mucous
in
stools, fever, chills and gripping
pain
in abdomen
Diarrhoea Giardia
(=Lamblia)
intestinalis
Food or water
con- taminated
with fae-
ces having cysts
Intestinal disorders leading to
epigastric pain, abdominal
discomfort, loss of
appetite, headache and loose
bowels
D. Helminth diseases:
Bilharzia Schistosoma spp Cercaria larvae
of
flukes in water
penetrate skin
of
persons wading
in
water
Allergy-like itch, rash, aches,
fever,
eosinophilia etc. When infection
heavy,
eggs may block arterioles of
lungs
cardio-pulmonary water
causing
schistosomiasis and may lead
to
congestive heart failure
Guinea worm Dracunculus
medinensis
Unfiltered water Blister near the ankle,
causing allergy and aches
E.Vector borne diseases related with water:
Diseases transmitted by mosquitoes-
Disease Causative
Organisms
Vector Hosts Symptoms
Malaria Plasmodium sp Female
Anopheles
(primary or
final hosts)
Man (inter-
mediate
hosts)
Shivering, chills and sweating. As
chills subside body temperature
rises as high as 106º F. When
temperature comes down patient
sweats profusely and becomes
comfortable until next attack which
takes place at regular intervals
Filaria
(Elephantiasis)
Wuchereria
(=filaria)
Culex
fatigans
Man (final
hosts)
Enlargement of limbs and scrotum
Dengue Barbo-virus Aedes aegypti Man
(reservoir)
Sudden onset of moderately high
fever, excruciating joint pain, intense
pain behind
eyes, a second rise in temp following
brief
remission, reduction inneutrophilic
white
blood cells
GREENHOUSE EFFECT AND GLOBAL WARMING
Greenhouse is an enclosure usually made of glass in which temperature inside is higher than outside.An increase in
the percentage of greenhouse gases which prevent the escape of heat from earth, would increase the average
temperature on earth worldwide known as greenhouse effect.
Greenhouse gases in the atmosphere behave much like the glass panes in a greenhouse. They allow sunlight to enter
the atmosphere of earth. When the sunlight enters the surface of the earth, sun’s energy is absorbed by land, water and
biosphere. Some of this energy is reflected back to the atmosphere by earth. Some of this energy passes back into the
space. However, most of the energy remains trapped in the atmosphere by the greenhouse gases causing global
warming on earth.
Causes of Global Warming
Carbon dioxide (CO2), Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), Methane (CH4) and Nitrous oxides (N2O) are the main
greenhouse gases that cause global warming. An increase in the concentration of these greenhouse gases leads to an
increased trapping of long wave radiations resulting in an increase in earth’s temperature causing global warming.
Greenhouse Gases: Their sources and Causes
Gas Sources and Causes
Carbon dioxide (CO2) Burning of fossil fuels, deforestation
Chlorofluorocarbons(CFCs) Refrigeration, solvents, insulation foams, aero
propellants, industrial and commercial uses
Nitrogen oxides (N2O) Burning of fossil fuels, fertilizers; burning of wood
and crop residue.
Methane (CH4) Growing paddy, excreta of cattle and other livestock,
termites,
The Ozone Hole: Depletion Of The Ozone Layer
The ozone layer present in the earth’s atmosphere prevents the entry of sun’s harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiations
reaching the Earth’s surface. Industrial use of chemicals called chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) in refrigeration, air
conditioning, cleaning solvents, fire extinguishers and aerosols (spray cans of perfumes, insecticides, medicines,
etc.) damage the ozone layer. The ozone hole is formed as follows :
Chlorine contained in the CFCs on reaching the ozone (O2) layer splits the ozone molecule to form oxygen (O2)
Amount of ozone, thus, gets reduced and cannot prevent the entry of UV radiations. There has been a reduction by
30-40% in the thickness of the ozone umbrella or shield over the Arctic and Antarctic regions.
Important Ozone Depleting Chemicals and their uses.
Acid Rain
Acid rain occurs when Sulphur dioxide (SO2) and oxides of Nitrogen (NOx) are emitted into the atmosphere, undergo
chemical transformations and are absorbed by water droplets in clouds. This causes the formation of sulphuric and
nitric acids in rain clouds. The droplets then fall to earth as rain, snow or mist. If rain falls through polluted air it
picks up more of these gases and increases its acidity. This is called acid rain. This can increase the acidity of the
soil, and affect the chemical balance of lakes and streams. Thus, acid rain is defined as any type of precipitation with
a pH that is unusually low. A pH of less than about 5 is used as a definition of acid rain. Acid rain is a serious
environmental problem that affects large parts of the world.
Sources of Acid Rain
Sulphur dioxide (SO2) is generally a byproduct of industrial processes and burning of fossil fuels. Ore smelting, coal-
fired power generators and natural gas processing are the main contributors to sulphur dioxide in the atmosphere.
The main source of oxides of nitrogen (NOx) emissions is the combustion of fuels in motor vehicles, residential and
commercial furnaces, industrial and electrical- utility boilers and engines, and other equipments.
Effects of Acid Rain
It causes acidification of lakes and streams and contributes to the damage of trees trees any many sensitive forest
soils. In addition, acid rain accelerates the decay of building materials and paints, including heritage buildings,
statues, and sculptures that are part of our nation’s cultural heritage. Prior to falling to the earth, suphur dioxide
(SO2) and nitrogen oxide (NOx) gases and their particulate matter derivatives— sulphates and nitrates-
contribute to visibility degradation and harm public health.
RADIATION–AN ENVIRONMENTAL POLLUTANT
Radiation is one of the chief forms of energy consisting of high energy particles. Radiation could be natural (solar
and cosmic) or and human (nuclear). Radiation has also become a major factor causing environmental pollution.
Radiation may have both short term or long term effects. They can further be divided functionally into :
 Ionising and
 Non Ionising radiations
Ionizing and Non Ionising Radiations
Type Ionizin
g
Non ionizing
Examples
Properties
Effects
Harmful Effects
Alpha, Beta, Gamma and X-
Ray
Short wave lengths, high
energy.
Causes ionisation in cells
photo products
 Deep penetrating
power effects both
external & internal
organs
Ultraviolet radiation
Higher wave lengths, low energy
Damage through toxic
 Only superficial
tissues are damaged
 Breakage of chromosomes
 Gene mutation
and genetic
variations
 Cancer of bone
marrow (Leukaemia)
 Loss hair
 Male sterility
 Kills micro-organism and
egg of fish & amphibians
 Prevents synthesis
of DNA and RNA,
Cell division
 Skin cancer in humans
Nuclear Radiation and its harmful effect
Radiations emitted by nuclear substances or wastes (fallout) or from atomic power plant or an atomic explosion cause
nuclear radiation. Nuclear wastes continue to emit radiation for a very long period.
Radioactive Iodine (131I) and Strontium (
90Sr) are two nuclear wastes from an atomic explosion and may
cause cancer of thyroid and cancer of bone narrow/ respectively. By entering food chain they also get accumulated in
high concentration in the body of the top consumer causing harmful effect on the health of both humans and animals.
Soil Pollution
Addition of substances that change the quality of soil by making it less fertile and unable to support life is called
soil pollution.
Sources of soil pollution
Soil pollution is caused due to :
 Domestic sources : plastic bags, kitchen waste, glass bottles, and paper
 Industrial sources : chemical residue, fly ash, metallic waste, and
 Agricultural residues : fertilizers and pesticides.
Harmful effects of soil pollution
 Decrease in irrigated land thereby reduction in agricultural production.
 Decrease in soil productivity.
 Carry over of pollutants into the food chain.
 Damage to landscape
Control of Soil Pollution
Judicious use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides.
Proper and appropriate irrigation practices
 Conversion of farm wastes into compost and much use of bio fertilizers and
manure in farming.
 Ensure use of pollution free or treated waste water only for irrigation.
 Recycling of waste material for example plastic, metal and glass are recyclable
and incineration of non recyclable, wastes.
Soil Erosion
The process of detaching and removal of loosened soil particles by water (running water, ground water,
rain, sea waves) and wind is known as soil erosion.
Soil may be eroded by water and wind, each contributing towards a significant amount of soil loss every year in our
country.
Types of soil erosion
Wind erosion
Erosion of large quantity of fine soil particles and sand from deserts by wind is known as wind erosion. It is spread
over the cultivated land and thus, destroys fertility of that land.
Sheet erosion
When water moves over the land surface as a sheet, it takes away the topmost thin layer of soil. This phenomenon
occurs uniformly on the slopes of hilly areas, riverbeds and areas affected by floods. This type of erosion is known as
sheet erosion.
Gully erosion
When water moves down the slope as a channel, it scoops out the soil and forms gullies which gradually multiply and
spread over a large area. This type of soil erosion is known as gully erosion.
NOISE POLLUTION
Any unwanted sound is defined as noise. You know that the noises come from traffic, vehicles, especially at peak hour
everyday, loud speakers and building construction work. Industries expose their workers to a high level of noises for
long period of work everyday.
Prolonged exposure to high level of noise is harmful. Noise is measured in terms of ‘decibel’ (db) - a scale expressing
intensity of the sound.
Noise has harmful effects on human body. Noise of 70-80 dB causes annoyance and irritation. Above this level,
breathing rate may be affected, blood vessels may constrict, movement of digestive canal is disturbed, glandular
secretions may be affected. Long exposure to high noise levels can impair hearing.
Pollution control Legislations in India
Acts Year
Indian Forest Act 1927
Wildlife ProtectionAct 1972
The water (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 1974
The air (Prevention and control of Pollution) Act 1981
The Environmental (Protection)Act 1986
The National Environmental TribunalAct 1995
The pollution related laws like the WaterAct (1974), AirAct (1981), and the Environmental Protection Act (1995) do not
give the right to an individuals to move the court under the environment laws for damages caused to them by
pollution. The right has been vested only in the agencies of the State Government.
NATURAL HAZARDS AND DISASTERS
Natural hazards are severe and extreme weather and climate events that occur naturally in all parts of the world,
although some regions are more vulnerable to certain hazards than others. Natural hazards become natural disasters
when people’s lives and livelihoods are destroyed.
Natural hazard events can be grouped into two broad categories. Geophysical hazards encompass geological and
meteorological phenomena such as earthquakes, coastal erosion, volcanic eruption, cyclonic storms, and
drought. Biological hazards can refer to a diverse array of disease and infestation. Other natural hazards such
as floods and wildfires can result from a combination of geological, hydrological, and climatic factors.
Geological hazards
Avalanche
An avalanche occurs when a large snow (or rock) mass slides down a mountainside. An avalanche is an example of
a gravity current consisting of granular material. In an avalanche, lots of material or mixtures of different types of
material fall or slide rapidly under the force of gravity. Avalanches are often classified by the size or severity of
consequences resulting from the event.
Earthquake
An earthquake is a phenomenon that results from a sudden release of stored energy that radiates seismic waves.
At the Earth's surface, earthquakes may manifest with a shaking or displacement of the ground; when
the earthquake occurs on the seafloor, the resulting displacement of water can sometimes result in a tsunami.
Most of the world's earthquakes (90%, and 81% of the largest) take place in the 40,000-km-long, horseshoe-
shaped zone called the circum-Pacific seismic belt, also known as the Pacific Ring of Fire, which for the most part
bounds the Pacific Plate. Many earthquakes happen each day, few of which are large enough to cause significant
damage.
Tsunami
A tsunami also known as a seismic sea wave or as a tidal wave, is a series of waves in a water body caused by the
displacement of a large volume of water, generally in an ocean or a large lake. Tsunamis can be caused by undersea
earthquakes such as the 2004 Boxing Day tsunami, or by landslides such as the one in 1958 at Lituya Bay, Alaska,
or by volcanic eruptions such as the ancient eruption of Santorini. On March 11, 2011, a tsunami occurred near
Fukushima, Japan and spread through the Pacific.
Coastal erosion
Coastal erosion is a physical process by which shorelines in coastal areas around the world shift and change, primarily
in response to waves and currents that can be influenced by tides and storm surge. Coastal erosion can result from
long-term processes as well as from episodic events such as tropical cyclones or other severe storm events.
Lahar
A lahar is a type of natural event closely related to a volcanic eruption, and involves a large amount of material
originating from an eruption of a glaciated volcano, including mud from the melted ice, rock, and ash sliding down
the side of the volcano at a rapid pace. These flows can destroy entire towns in seconds and kill thousands of people,
and form flood basalt. This is based on natural events.
Landslide
A landslide is a mass displacement of sediment, usually down a slope.
Sinkholes
A sinkhole is a localized depression in the surface topography, usually caused by the collapse of a subterranean
structure such as a cave. Although rare, large sinkholes that develop suddenly in populated areas can lead to the
collapse of buildings and other structures.
Volcanic Eruption
A volcanic eruption is the point in which a volcano is active and releases its power, and the eruptions come in many
forms. They range from daily small eruptions which occur in places like Kilauea in Hawaii, to megacolossal eruptions
(where the volcano expels at least 1,000 cubic kilometers of material) from supervolcanoes like Lake Taupo (26,500
years ago) and Yellowstone Caldera. According to the Toba catastrophe theory, 70 to 75 thousand years ago, a super
volcanic event at Lake Toba reduced the human population to 10,000 or even 1,000 breeding pairs, creating a
bottleneck in human evolution. Some eruptions form pyroclastic flows, which are high-temperature clouds of ash and
steam that can travel down mountainsides at speed exceeding an airliner.
Metrological Hazards
Blizzard
A blizzard is a severe winter storm icy and windy conditions characterized by low temperature, strong wind and heavy
snow.
Drought
Scientists warn that global warming and climate change may result in more extensive droughts in coming years.
These extensive droughts are likely to occur within the African continent due to its very low precipitation levels and
high climate.
Hailstorm
A hailstorm is a natural hazard where a thunderstorm produces numerous hailstones which damage the location in
which they fall. Hailstorms can be especially devastating to farm fields, ruining crops and damaging equipment.
Heat wave
A heat wave is a hazard characterized by heat which is considered extreme and unusual in the area in which it occurs.
Heat waves are rare and require specific combinations of weather events to take place, and may include temperature
inversions, katabatic winds, or other phenomena. There is potential for longer-term events causing global warming,
including stadial events (the opposite to glacial "ice age" events), or through human-induced climatic warming.
Maelstrom
A maelstrom is a very powerful whirlpool. It is a large, swirling body of water with considerable downdraft. There are
virtually no documented accounts of large ships being sucked into a maelstrom, although smaller craft and swimmers
are in danger. Tsunami-generated maelstroms may even threaten larger crafts.
Cyclonic storm
Hurricane, tropical cyclone, and typhoon are different names for the same phenomenon: a cyclonic storm system
that forms over the oceans. It is caused by evaporated water that comes off of the ocean and becomes a storm.
The Cariolis effect causes the storms to spin, and a hurricane is declared when this spinning mass of storms attains
a wind speed greater than 74 mph (119 km/h). Hurricane is used for these phenomena in the Atlantic and
eastern Pacific Oceans, tropical cyclone in the Indian, and typhoon in the western Pacific.
Ice storm
An ice storm is a particular weather event in which precipitation falls as ice, due to atmosphere conditions. It
causes damage.
Tornado
A tornado is a natural disaster resulting from a thunderstorm. Tornadoes are violent, rotating columns of air which
can blow at speeds between 50 mph (80 km/h) and 300 mph (480 km/h), and possibly higher. Tornadoes can occur
one at a time, or can occur in large tornado outbreaks associated with super cells or in other large areas of
thunderstorm development. Waterspouts are tornadoes occurring over tropical waters in light rain conditions.
Climate change
Climate change is a long-term hazard which can increase or decrease the risk of other weather hazards, and also
directly endangers property due to sea level rise and biological organisms due to habitat destruction.
Geomagnetic storm
Geomagnetic storms can disrupt or damage technological infrastructure, and disorient species
with magnetoception.
Water spout
A waterspout is an intense columnar vortex (usually appearing as a funnel-shaped cloud) that occurs over a body
of water. They are connected to a towering cumuliform cloud or a cumulonimbus cloud.
[1] In the common form, it is
a non-supercell tornado over water
Flood
A flood results from an overflow of water beyond its normal confines of a body of water such as a lake, or the
accumulation of water over land areas.
Wildfire
Wildfire is a fire that burns in an uncontrolled and unplanned manner. Wildfires can result from natural occurrences
such as lightning strikes or from human activity.
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQS)
PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT PART A:
Q1) Which of the following gases is not a Green House Gas?
Options:
A) CO B) O3 C) CH4 D) H2O vapour
Q2) The great Indian Bustard bird is found in
Options:
A) Thar Desert of Rajasthan B) Coastal regions of India C) Malabar Coast D) Delta regions
Q3) The Sagarmanthan National Park has been established to preserve the ecosystem of which mountain
peak?
Options:
A) Kanchenjunga B) Mount Everest C) Annapurna D) Dholavira
Q4) Maximum soot is released from
Options:
A) Petrol vehicles B) CNG vehicles C) Diesel vehicles D) Thermal Power Plants
Q5) Surface Ozone is produced from
Options:
A) Transport sector B) Cement plants C) Textile industry D) Chemical industry
Q6) Which one of the following non-conventional energy sources can be exploited most economically?
Options:
A) Solar B) Wind C) Geo-thermal D) Ocean Thermal Energy Conversion (OTEC)
Q7) The most recurring natural hazard in India is
Options:
A) Earthquakes B) Floods C) Landslides D) Volcanoes
Q8) Which one of the following is the oldest Archival source of data in India?
Options:
A) National Sample Surveys B) Agricultural Statistics C) Census D) Vital Statistics
Q9) Which is the smallest North-east State in India?
Options:
A) Tripura B) Meghalaya C) Mizoram D) Manipur
Q10) Tamilnadu coastal belt has drinking water shortage due to:
Options:
A) high evaporation B) sea water flooding due to tsunami C) over exploitation of ground water by tube
wells D) seepage of sea water
Q11) While all rivers of Peninsular India flow into the Bay of Bengal, Narmada and Tapti flow into the
Arabian Sea because these two rivers:
Options:
A) follow the slope of these rift valleys B) The general slope of the Indian peninsula is from east to west
C) The Indian peninsula north of the Satpura ranges, is tilted towards the west D) The Indian peninsula
south of the Satpura ranges is tilted towards east
Q12) Soils in the Mahanadi delta are less fertile than those in the Godavari delta because of:
Options:
A) erosion of top soils by annual floods B) inundation of land by sea water C) inundation of land by sea
water D) the derivation of alluvial soil from red-soil hinterland
Q13) Parliament can legislate on matters listed in the State list:
Options:
A) With the prior permission of the President. B) Only after the constitution is amended suitably. C) In
case of inconsistency among State legislatures. D) At the request of two or more States.
Q14) The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
Options:
A) change in weather B) sinking of islands C) loss of vegetation D) extinction of animals
Q15) Consider the following about the Himalayan orogeny
Options:
A) The orogeny resulted from the southward movement B) The orogeny began about 25 million years
ago C) The orogeny closed about 1 million years ago D) The Himalayas have a root of relatively light
crustal rocks projecting into the denser mantle.
Q16) Which of the following combinations is correct?
Options:
A) A and B B) C and D C) A and C D) B and D
Q17) A seismogram records the following types of earthquake waves. I L-waves II P -waves III S -
waves The correct chronological sequence of the arrival of these waves is
Options:
A) B, C and D B) B, A and C C) C, A and B D) A, B and C arrive at the same time
Q18) Which one of the following statement is true of braided streams?
Options:
A) Width and depth of the channel are equal B) Width of the channel is greater than its depth C) Width
of the channel is unrelated to its depth D) Width of the channel is less than its depth
Q19) With absorption and decomposition of CO2 in ocean water beyond desired level, there will be:
Options:
A) decrease in temperature B) increase in salinity C) growth of phytoplankton D) rise in sea level
Q20) The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by:
Options:
A) Coal B) Firewood C) Refuse burning D) Vegetable waste product
Q21) The urbanization process accounts for the wind in the urban centres during nights to remain:
Options:
A) faster than that in rural areas B) slower than that in rural areas C) the same as that in rural areas D)
cooler than that in rural areas
Q22) Which of the following methods will you choose to prepare choropleth map of India showing
urban density of population:
Options:
A) Quartiles B) Quintiles C) Mean and SD D) Break -point
Q23) Which of the following methods is best suited to show on a map the types of crops being grown in
a region
Options:
A) Choropleth B) Chorochromatic C) Choroschematic D) Isopleths
Q24) A ratio represents the relation between:
Options:
A) Part and Part B) Part and Whole C) Whole and Whole D) All of the above
Q25) Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for modifying the climate.
Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both short wave and infra -red radiations.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) . B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not the correct explanation of (A) . C) (A) is true and (R) is false D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Q26) Which of the following grows rapidly resulting in the shrinkage of water bodies?
Options:
A) Phytoplankton B) Zooplankton C) Algae D) Macrophytes
Q27) Which species of chromium is toxic in water?
Options:
A) Cr+2 B) Cr+3 C) Cr+6 D) Cr0
Q28) Chemical compounds having same crystal structure are called
Options:
A) Polymorphic B) Pseudomorphic C) Isomorphic D) None of the above
Q29) Micas having an atomic structure defined as continuous sheets of tetra hedrons, sharing 3-oxygen
atoms, are called:
Options:
A) Inosilicate B) Phyllosilicate C) Tectosilicate D) Sorosilicate
Q30) If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable yield:
Options:
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity B) is equal to the carrying capacity C) depends on growth rate
D) depends on the initial population
Q31) Fluidized -bed combustion of coal is an efficient method of controlling which of the following air
pollutants:
Options:
A) CO B) SPM and Nox C) NOx and Sox D) CO, SPM and Sox
Q32) Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason
(R):
Assertion (A): One of the movements of the surface water of ocean is known as ocean current.
Reason (R): Ocean currents are caused mainly due to planetary winds and the difference in temperature
and density of water.
In the context of the above two statements, which one the following is correct?
Options:
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. B) Both A and R are true but R is not a
correct explanation of A C) A is true but R is false D) A is false but R is true
Q33) Tsunami occurs due to:
Options:
A) Mild earthquakes and landslides in the oceans B) Strong earthquakes and landslides in the oceans C)
Strong earthquakes and landslides in mountains D) Strong earthquakes and landslides in deserts
Q34) Which of the natural hazards have big effect on Indian people each year?
Options:
A) Cyclones B) Floods C) Earthquakes D) Landslides
Q35) Comparative Environment Impact Assessment study is to be conducted for:
Options:
A) the whole year B) three seasons excluding monsoon C) any three seasons D) the worst season
Q36) Sea level rise results primarily due to:
Options:
A) Heavy rainfall B) Melting of glaciers C) Submarine volcanism D) Seafloor spreading
Q37) The plume rise in a coal based power plant depends on:
i) Buoyancy.
ii) Atmospheric stability.
iii) Momentum of exhaust gases. Identify the correct code:
Options:
A) (i) and (ii) only B) (ii) and (iii) only C) (i) and (iii) only D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Q38) Winds blowing down an incline often due to cold air drainage are called:
Options:
A) Anabatic winds B) Mountain winds C) Cyclonic winds D) katabatic winds
Q39) Mixing height is:
Options:
A) the height of ground based inversion B) the height at which geostrophic balance occurs C) the height
of constant solar flux layer D) the height upto which atmosphere is churned by convection
Q40) For a comprehensive EIA study, it is to be conducted for:
Options:
A) The whole year B) Any three seasons including monsoon C) Three seasons excluding monsoon D)
The worst season
Q41) In initial environmental examination, the following are considered:
Options:
A) No quantitative data B) Primary data C) Secondary data D) On site data for at least a season
Q42) Which of the following forest types is most widespread in India?
Options:
A) Tropical evergreen forest B) Tropical deciduous forest C) Temperate forest D) Scrub forest
Q43) The presence of pneumatophores is seen in:
Options:
A) Desert plants B) Climbers and lianas C) Trees of tropical moist forests D) Mangroves
Q44) Ramsar convention is related to conservation of:
Options:
A) Tiger B) Elephants C) Crop genetic diversity D) Wetlands
Q45) A significant effect of climate change on account of global warming of terrestrial plants will be
on:
Options:
A) Stomatal mechanism B) Amino acid composition of cereal grains C) Phenology D) Bark formation in
trees
Q46) A tree, which is popular in social forestry programme in India, is:
Options:
A) Shorea Robusta B) Ailanthus excelsa C) Cedrus deodara D) Callistemon lanceolatus
Q47) The great Indian Rhino has its natural home in
Options:
A) Kaziranga National Park B) Corbett National Park C) Sunderbans D) kanha National Park
Q48) According to the Botanical Survey of India, the total number of plant species in India is about:
Options:
A) 45000 B) 75000 C) 17000 D) 30000
Q49) Assertion (A): Bt cotton is a transgenic crop which has been introduced in India, but is being
opposed on environmental grounds. Reason (R): CrylAc protein in Bt cotton has been found to be toxic
and allergenic to human beings.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). B) Both (A) and (R) are true but
(R) is not correct explanation of (A). C) (A) is true but (R) is false D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Q50) Oxygen toxicity (in humans) is caused by:
Options:
A) Inhalation of molecular oxygen B) Generation of free radicals C) Interactions of singlet oxygen with
membrane D) None of the above
Q51) C2F3C 3 gas:
Options:
A) absorbs ultraviolet radiations B) affects troposphere ozone C) forms aerosols in stratosphere D)
absorbs infrared radiations
Q52) Which of the following shows bioaccumulation and contaminate food chains?
Options:
A) Pesticides B) Polychlorinated biphenyls C) PAN D) All of the above
Q53) Removal of which of the following impurities from contaminated water requires the of coagulants:
Options:
A) Colloidal impurities B) dissolved solids C) micro organisms D) all of the above
Q54) The most efficient method of biodegradable urban solid waste management is:
Options:
A) Landfills B) Pelletization C) Gasification D) Composting
Q55) Pollutants in soil can be broken down by micro organisms. The process is called:
Options:
A) Probiotics B) Bioremediation C) Bioaugmentation D) None of the above
Q56) A thermodynamic function of state which is constant during a reversible isobaric isothermal
process is:
Options:
A) Geothermal potential B) Thermodynamic efficiency C) Enthalpy D) Gibb’s free energy
Q57) t -statistic is useful for testing:
Options:
A) Variances B) Overall goodness of fit of a regression model C) null hypothesis for a regression
coefficient D) constancy of the mean
Q58) 1 metric ton of average coal in energy terms is equivalent to:
Options:
A) 2000 cubic feet of natural gas B) 24000 cubic feet of natural gas C) 1.5 barrels of oil D) 2.0 barrels of
oil
Q59) In marine environment Carbonate Compensation Depth (CCD) is de-fined as depth at which:
Options:
A) Carbonate begins to dissolve B) Carbonate begins to precipitate C) Carbonate begins to precipitate
D) Bicarbonate begins to dissolve
Q60) In an idealized Magneto hydrodynamic power plant, the maximum power output varies with fuel
velocity (u) as:
Options:
A) U B) U2 C) U3 D) U1/2
Q61) In humid climate, weathering of various types ”of rocks occurs. Identify the correct sequence in
order of decreasing weathering:
Options:
A) Basalt: Dunite: Granite B) Basalt: Granite: Dunite C) Dunite: Granite: Basalt D) Dunite: Basalt:
Granite
Q62) The lion -tailed macaque is endemic to:
Options:
A) Andaman and Nicobar islands B) Lakshadweep C) Nilgiri D) Arunachal Pradesh
Q63) Which of the following concepts can be used to study the rate of
acceleration of the Universe? I) Supernovae Explosions.
II) Dark Matter.
III) Dark Energy.
IV) Black Holes.
Options:
A) I& III only. B) I& II only. C) II, III & IV only. D) I, III & IV only.
Q64) Which of the following can be a trigger for Coral Bleaching? I) crease in ocean temperature.
II) Decrease in ocean temperature.
III) Decline in Zooplankton levels.
IV) Changes in salinity.
V) Elevated sea levels due to global warming.
Options:
A) All except II B) All except II & IV C) All except V D) None of the above.
Q65) Deforestation during the recent decades has led to:
Options:
A) Soil erosion B) Landslides C) Loss of bio-diversity D) All the above
Q66) Which one of the following natural hazards is responsible for causing highest human disaster?
Options:
A) Earthquakes B) Snow-storms?? C) Volcanic eruptions D) Tsunami
Q67) Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
Options:
A) International AID B) Timely Warning System C) Rehabilitation D) Community Participation
Q68) Slums in metro-city are the result of:
Options:
A) Rural to urban migration B) Poverty of the city-scape C) Lack of urban infrastructure D) Urban-
governance
Q69) Ganga Action plan was launched in.
Options:
A) 1985 B) 1986 C) 1987 D) 1988
Q70) NRCP was launched in...
Options:
A) 1994 B) 1995 C) 1996 D) 1997
Q71) The Suez Canal connects:
Options:
A) Baltic Sea and the Caspian Sea B) Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea C) Red Sea and the Caspian
Sea D) Mediterranean Sea and North Sea
Q72) Nagli is a
Options:
A) Animal B) Cotton C) Crop D) None of these
Q73) Solar, Wind are the examples of
Options:
A) Renewable B) Non-renewable C) Both D) None of these
Q74) Jog waterfall, the highest waterfall in India, is located in
Options:
A) Kerala B) Karnataka
C) Maharashtra D) Madhya Pradesh
Q75) Which one of the following mountain peaks of the Himalayas is not in India
Options:
A) Annapurna B) Nanda Devi C) Mt. Kamet D) Kanchenjunga
Q76) Freely suspended magnetic needle stands in which direction?
Options:
A) North-West direction B) North-South direction C) North-East direction D) South-West direction
Q77) In what regions can the sun be seen at midnight?
Options:
A) The tropical zone B) Warm temperate regions C) The Arctic and Antarctic regions D) Anywhere at
the time of lunar eclipse
Q78) The Basel Convention on the Control of Trans boundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and
Their Disposal, usually known as the Basel Convention:
I) t is an international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazardous wastes from
developed to less developed countries.
II)It does not address the movement of radioactive waste.
Options:
A) I only. B) II only. C) Both I and II D) None of these
Q79) Which among the following planets intersects the orbit of Neptune?
Options:
A) Mercury B) Pluto C) Earth D) Uranus
Q80) Which of the following countries is called the ”Country of white elephants”?
Options:
A) Kuwait B) Thailand C) South Africa D) India
Q81) Where is the famous shore temple located?
Options:
A) Puri B) Visakhapatnam C) Mamallapuram D) Chennai
Q82) If the Arctic Ice was somehow replaced with dense forest, which of the following situation may
arise:
Options:
A) It will accelerate Global Warming. B) It will decelerate Global Warming. C) It may or may not affect
Global warming. D) It will have no affect on Global Warming.
Q83) Radcliff Line’ is a boundary line between
Options:
A) India and Bangladesh B) India and Bhutan C) India and China D) India and Pakistan
Q84) Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Red tide-a term used to describe
Harmful Algal Blooms (HABs) in marine coastal areas.
I)These blooms are not associated with tides.
II) ABs tint the seawater to a reddish colour.
III) Not all algal blooms are harmful, even those involving red discoloration.
Options:
A) I& III only. B) I& II only. C) II& III only. D) I, II& III
Q85) Which of the following statements is/are correct:
I) Ozone Depletion causes reduction in stratospheric and upper tropospheric temperatures.
II) crease in Green House Gases causes reduction in stratospheric and upper tropospheric temperatures.
Options:
A) I only. B) II only. C) Both I and II D) None on these
Q86) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Ozone
Depletion:
I) Ozone hole is measured in terms of ozone concentrations, which is expressed in Dobson units.
II) The major cause for Ozone Depletion is the presence of CFCs i stratosphere- CFCs are entirely man
made and not found naturally.
Options:
A) I only. B) II only. C) Both I and II D) None of these
Q87) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Options:
A) Panna: Diamond B) Neyveli: Lignite C) Mysore: Marble D) Sambhar: Salt
Q88) Where does the primitive community. of Bushman live?
Options:
A) Sahara desert B) Thar desert C) Kalahari desert D) Atacama desert
Q89) Difference of longitudinal of two places on the earth is 15^0 What will Difference of longitudinal
of two places on the earth is
Options:
A) No difference B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 15 hours
Q90) The first man to reach the South Pole on I December 14, 1911 was
Options:
A) Commander Robert, E. Peary of U.S. B) Roald Amundsen from Norway C) The Navigator Ferdinand
Magellan D) Sir Francis Drake of England
Q91) Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world?
Options:
A) Bengali B) French C) Japanese D) Portuguese
Q92) Where was electricity introduced in India?
Options:
A) Kolkata B) Darjeeling C) Mumbai D) Chennai
Q93) The great Indian Bustard bird is found in:
Options:
A) Thar Desert of India B) Coastal regions of India C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya D) Tarai
zones of the Himalayan Foot
Q94) Which one of the following is the most comprehensive source of population data?
Options:
A) National Family Health Surveys B) National Sample Surveys C) Census D) Demographic Health
Surveys
Q95) Human ear is most sensitive to noise in which of the following ranges:
Options:
A) 1-2 KHz B) 100-500 Hz C) 10-22 KHz D) 13-16 KHz
Q96) Which one of the following units is used to measure intensity of noise?
Options:
A) decibel B) Hz C) Phone D) Watts/m^2
Q97) If the population growth follows a logistic curve, the maximum sustainable yield:
Options:
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity. B) is equal to the carrying capacity. C) depends on growth
rates. D) depends on the initial population.
Q98) Chemical weathering of rocks is largely dependent upon:
Options:
A) high temperature B) strong wind action C) heavy rainfall D) glaciation
Q99) Which of the following pairs regarding typical composition of hospital wastes is incorrect?
Options:
A) Plastic—9-12% B) Metals—1-2% C) Ceramic—8-10% D) Biodegradable—35-40%
Q100) Fresh water achieves its greatest density at:
Options:
A) −4◦ C B) 0◦ C C) 4◦ C D) −2.5◦ C
Q101) Which one of the following is not associated with earthquakes?
Options:
A) Focus B) Epicentre C) Seismograph D) Swells
Q102) The tallest trees in the world are found in the region:
Options:
A) Equatorial region B) Temperate region C) Monsoon region D) Mediterranean region
Q103) Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in:
Options:
A) physical characteristics of the environment B) biophysical characteristics of the environment C)
socio-economic characteristics of the environment D) all the above
Q104) Bog is a wetland that receives water from:
Options:
A) nearby water bodies B) melting C) rain fall only D) sea only
Q105) Which of the following region is in the very high risk zone of earth- quakes?
Options:
A) Central Indian Highland B) Coastal region C) Himalayan region D) Indian desert
Q106) Indian coastal areas experienced Tsunami disaster in the year: (JUNE- 009)
Options:
A) 2005 B) 2004 C) 2006 D) 2007
Q107) Which of the following sources of data is not based on primary data collection?
Options:
A) Census of India B) National Sample Survey C) Statistical Abstracts of India D) National Family
Health Survey
Q108) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Vitamin D:
I) Vitamin D is produced in the skin by ultraviolet light.
II) Higher levels of Vitamin D are associated with higher morbidity.
III) Body has no mechanism to prevent sunlight from producing too much Vitamin D
Options:
A) I& III only. B) I& II only. C) II& III only. D) I, II &III
Q109) An increase of 10 ppm in the concentration of CO, in atmosphere represents approximately an
addition of carbon of amount:
Options:
A) 1.2 Kilotons B) 2.12 Megatons C) 21.2 Giga tons D) 2120 tons
Q110) The capital of Laos is
Options:
A) Vientiane B) Ankara C) Abu Dhabi D) Hanoi
Q111) Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?
Options:
A) Mandeb B) Magellan C) Malacca D) Palk
Q112) Which of the following is the largest island?
Options:
A) Sumatra B) Madagascar C) Honshu D) Cuba
Q113) Which of the following district is on the international border of India
Options:
A) Gorakhpur B) West Khasi Hills C) Kinnaur D) Kullu
Q114) Which one of the following is not the vegetation in Selva forests?
Options:
A) Epiphytes B) Xerophytes C) Liana D) Hydrophytes
Q115) How far the axis of earth is inclined of its orbital surface?
Options:
A) 23 B) 66 C) 180 D) It is not inclined
Q116) Recently Chinese scientists have developed Carbon Aerogel. Which
of the following is/are correct about it:
I) It is the second lightest material after Graphite aerogel.
II) It has excellent elasticity.
III) t is expected to play an important role in pollution control.
IV) t is expected to become ideal material for sound absorption.
Options:
A) II, III & IV only. B) II, & IV only. C) I& III only. D) I, II, III & IV
Q117) Lantana – know as Phool Lakhri in local parlance, is a shrub found in abundance in Himachal
Pradesh.
1. It is a toxic weed and has affected the mountain diversity of the state.
2. Lantana species are widely cultivated for their flowers.
3. It is endemic to India.
4. It is considered as potential fire hazard and it is combustible even when green.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct about it?
Options:
A) I, II & IV only. B) II& IV only. C) I& III only. D) I, II, III & IV
Q118) Which of the following is only star?
Options:
A) Moon B) Venus C) Earth D) Sun
Q119) Israel has common borders with
Options:
A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt B) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan C) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan
and Egypt D) Turkey, , Syria, Iraq and Yemen
Q120) Which one of the following is the longest glacier of India?
Options:
A) Pindari B) Gangotri C) Siachen D) Zemu
Q121) Nubian desert is in
Options:
A) Ethopia B) Egypt C) Sudan D) Somalia
Q122) The longest highway in India runs from
Options:
A) Kolkata to Jammu B) Jammu to Kanya Kumari C) Ambala to Nagercoil D) Varanasi to Kanya
Kumari
Q123) Which of the following statements are correct about C & Ku Band that are used for satellite
communications transmissions:
I)The frequency of Ku Band is greater than C band.
II) C band performs better under adverse weather conditions in comparison to Ku band.
III) C band has a higher likelihood of terrestrial interference in comparison to Ku Band.
Options:
A) I, II &, III B) I& II only C) II &III only D) II & III only.
Q124) Which of the following statements are true regarding Soda Lake:
I) Soda lakes are highly acidic lakes.
II) Soda lakes are highly productive ecosystems.
III) A critical geological condition for the formation of Soda Lake is the absence of soluble calcium or
magnesium.
IV) Lonar and Sambhar lakes are examples of Soda lakes in India.
Options:
A) I, II& III only B) I& IV only. C) II, III & IV only. D) III& IV only.
Q125) Which of the following is/are the Industrial uses of Hydraulic Fracturing: I)Arousing production
from oil and gas wells.
II) To dispose of waste by injection into deep rock formations.
III) As a method to measure the stress in the Earth.
Options:
A) I, II & III B) I only. C) I& III only. D) II & III only.
Q126) The new alluvial deposits found the Gangetic plain are known as
Options:
A) Bhabar B) Bhangar C) Khadar D) Terai
Q127) Which water body separates Australia from New Zealand?
Options:
A) Cook Straits B) Tasman Sea C) Munro Sound D) Great Barrier Reef
Q128) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India is situated on:
Options:
A) Palni Hills B) Annamalai Mountain C) Nilgiri Mountain D) Cardamom Hills
Q129) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Options:
A) A − (iv), B − (iii), C − (ii), D − (i) B) A − (iii), B − (iv), C − (ii), D − (i) C) A − (i), B − (iii), C − (iv),
D − (ii) D) A − (iv), B − (ii), C − (iii), D − (i)
Q130) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Options:
A) A − (ii), B − (i), C − (iv), D − (iii) B) A − (iii), B − (iv), C − (ii), D − (i) C) A − (i), B − (iii), C − (iv),
D − (ii) D) A − (iv), B − (ii), C − (iii), D − (i)
Q131) The smallest continent of the world is
Options:
A) Europe B) Antarctica C) South America D) Australia
Q132) The earthquake waves which have transverse movements are known as
Options:
A) Primary waves B) Secondary waves C) Surface waves D) None of the above
Q133) Plasma arc technology is used for the disposal of waste, which of the
following statements is/are correct with regard to this technology:
I) It can be used for the disposal of hazardous and radioactive waste.
II) Oxides of Sulfur and Nitrogen are the polluting gases produced
in this process.
III) This technology has not been tried anywhere in India.
Options:
A) I& II B) I& II only. C) I& III only. D) III only.
Q134) What do you understand by the term ‘Dark Fermentation’
Options:
A) It is a method to reduce CO2 in the atmosphere. B) It is a method to produce Hydrogen as fuel from
wastewater. C) It is a method to dispose nuclear wastes. D) It is a method to produce methane from
organic waste.
Q135) Which region of India receives rainfall due to western disturbance I winter?
Options:
A) Western region B) Central region C) Eastern region D) North-Western region
Q136) What is the correct sequence of the rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the
descending order of their lengths?
Options:
A) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi B) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi C) Narmada-Godavari-
Tapi-Mahanadi D) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
Q137) Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
Options:
A) Earth B) Jupiter C) Mars D) Venus
Q138) Which of the following is the highest waterfall in the world?
Options:
A) Angel B) Ribbin C) Hungela D) Quecanag
Q139) What is the harm from the depletion of Earth’s ozone layer
Options:
A) The average temperature of earth’s surface will increase gradually B) The oxygen content of the
atmosphere will decrease C) Increased amount of Ultra violet radiation will reach earth’s surface D) Sea
levels will rise as the polar ice caps will gradually melt
Q140) Acid rain is formed due to contribution from the following pair of gases
Options:
A) Methane and ozone B) Oxygen and nitrous oxide C) methane and Sulfur dioxide D) Carbon dioxide
and Sulfur dioxide
Q141) Biochemical Oxygen Demand, (BOD) is a measure of organic material present in water. BOD
value less than 5 ppm indicates a water sample to be __________.
Options:
A) rich in dissolved oxygen B) poor in dissolved oxygen.
C) highly polluted D) not suitable for aquatic life.
Q142) Environmental impact assessment is an objective analysis of the probable changes in:
Options:
A) physical characteristics of the environment B) biophysical characteristics of the environment C)
socio-economic characteristics of the environment D) all the above
Q143) Who among the following can be asked to make a statement in India Parliament?
Options:
A) Any MLA B) Chief of Army Staff C) Solicitor General of India D) Mayor of Delhi
Q144) Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:
Options:
A) reduces the shear strength of rocks B) increases the weight of the overburden C) enhances chemical
weathering D) is a universal solvent
Q145) Which of the following is a prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the
atmosphere due to depletion of stratospheric ozone?
Options:
A) Damage to digestive system B) Increased liver cancer C) Neurological disorder D) Increased skin
cancer
Q146) The most serious environmental effect posed by hazardous wastes is
Options:
A) air pollution. B) contamination of groundwater. C) increased use of land for landfills. . D) none of the
above.
Q147) Which of the following can generate Tsunami?
Options:
A) Earthquake B) Nuclear bomb testing C) Meteorite impact D) All of these
Q148) In the study of man environment interaction, the statement of Miss Semple that “the humans are
solely the product of their environment” is:
Options:
A) An opinion B) A prejudice C) A fact D) A widely accepted phenomenon
Q149) If the population growth follows a logistic curve the maximum sustainable yield:
Options:
A) is equal to half the carrying capacity B) is equal to the carrying capacity C) depends on growth rates.
D) depends on the initial population
Q150) What is true about Lonar Lake?
Options:
A) It is a Salt Lake B) It is a Crater Lake C) It is a Lagoon Lake D) It is situated in Rift Valley
Q151) Winter rains in north -west India are generally associated with the phenomenon of
Options:
A) retreating monsoon B) temperate cyclones C) local thunderstorms D) shift in Jet stream movement
Q152) The colour of yellow sea is such on a account of
Options:
A) industrial pollution B) peculiar types of phytoplankton growing there. C) loess brought by Hwang-ho
river. D) high sulphur content in the bottom rocks
Q153) Sharavati Hydro-electric Project is located in
Options:
A) Odisha B) Tamil Naidu C) Andhra Pradesh D) Karnataka
Q154) What is the full form of IUCN?
Options:
A) Indian Universal Centre of Nature B) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural
Resources C) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature D) Interaction Union for Consumption of Natural
Resources
Q155) Which one of the following is appropriate for natural hazard mitigation?
Options:
A) International AID B) Timely Warning System C) Rehabilitation D) Community Participation
Q156) The great Indian Bustard (Ardeotis nigriceps) bird is found in
Options:
A) Thar Desert of India B) Coastal regions of India C) Temperate Forests in the Himalaya D) Tarai
zones of the Himalaya Foot
Q157) What is bio chore?
Options:
A) A unit of vegetation having uniformity of life form B) A unit of vegetation having same type of
climate C) A unit of vegetation having large tree D) A unit of vegetation having grass land
Q158) Pitchblende is the ore of
Options:
A) rubidium B) francium C) radium D) uranium
Q159) Who developed the first paper for the human beings?
Options:
A) The Babylonians B) The Chinese C) The Sumerians D) The Aryans
Q160) Kavaratti is the capital city of
Options:
A) Pondicherry B) Andaman-Nicobar Islands C) Lakshadweep D) None of these
Q161) Atmosphere exists because of
Options:
A) gravitational force of earth B) revolution of earth C) Rotation of earth D) None of these
Q162) Sea level rise results primarily due to:
Options:
A) Heavy rainfall B) Melting of glaciers C) Submarine volcanism D) Seafloor spreading
Q163) Tsunami occurs due to:
Options:
A) Mild earthquakes and land-slides in the oceans B) Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the oceans
C) Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the mountains D) Strong earthquakes and land-slides in the
deserts
Q164) Which of the following is not cy-clone prone area in India?
Options:
A) Orissa B) Gujarat C) Andhra Pradesh D) Assam(Asom)
Q165) The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
Options:
A) change in weather B) sinking of islands C) loss of vegetation D) extinction of animals
Q166) The coldest place on the earth among the following is
Options:
A) Halifax B) Chicago C) Siachin D) Verkhoyansk
Q167) “E” denotes:
Options:
A) Universal Negative Proposition B) Particular Affirmative Proposition C) Universal Affirmative
Proposition D) Particular Negative Proposition
Q168) Sericulture is:
Options:
A) science of the various kinds of serum B) artificial rearing of fish C) art of silkworm breeding D)
study of various cultures of a community
Q169) Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river?
Options:
A) Indira-Sagar Project B) Maheshwar Hydel Power Project C) Jobat Project D) Koyna Power Project
Q170) Photosphere is described as the:
Options:
A) Lower layer of atmosphere B) Visible surface of the sun from which radiation emanates C)
Wavelength of solar spectrum D) None of the above
Q171) Location of sugar industry in India is shifting from north to south because of:
Options:
A) cheap labour B) expanding regional market C) cheap and abundant supply of power D) high yield
and high sugar content in sugarcane
Q172) Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
Options:
A) Delhi B) Kolkata C) Jodhpur D) Nagpur
Q173) India's Oil bearing areas are mostly associated with the:
Options:
A) Plutonic rocks B) Volcanic rocks C) Sedimentary rocks D) Metamorphic rocks
Q174) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Options:
A) Kota —Chambal B) Bhubaneswar --Mahanadi C) Jabalpur — Narmada D) Surat ---Tapti
Q175) Nagarjunasagar Project is situated on the river:
Options:
A) Tungabhadra B) Cauvery C) Krishna D) Godavari
Q176) Through which States does Cauvery River flow?
Options:
A) Gujarat, M.P. Tamil Nadu B) Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu C) Karnataka, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh
D) M.P., Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu
Q177) The world is divided into:
Options:
A) 12 time zones B) 20 time zones C) 24 time zones D) 36 time zones
Q178) Atmosphere exists because:
Options:
A) The Gravitational force of the Earth B) Revolution of the Earth C) Rotation of the Earth D) Weight
of the gases of atmosphere
Q179) The zone of excessively dry climate with very cold temperature throughout the year correspond
to:
Options:
A) Arctic deserts B) Tundra C) alpine meadows D) Antarctica
Q180) Laterite soil develops as a result of:
Options:
A) deposits of alluvial B) deposition of loess C) leaching D) continued vegetation cover
Q181) Which of the following rivers is not a tributary of the Indus?
Options:
A) Sutlej B) Jhelum C) Bhagirathi D) Chenab
Q182) Tides in the oceans are caused by:
Options:
A) Gravitational pull of the moon on the earth's surface including sea water B) Gravitational pull of the
sun on the earth's surface only and not on the sea water C) Gravitational pull of the moon and the sun on
the earth's surface including the sea water D) None of these
Q183) Which of the following statements is not true about the availability of water on the earth, the
crisis for which is going to increase in the years to come?
Options:
A) About 97.5 per cent of the total volume of water available on the earth is salty B) 80 per cent of the
water available to us for use comes in bursts as monsoons C) About 2.5 per cent of the total water
available on the earth is polluted water and cannot be used for human activities D) Possibility is that
some big glaciers will melt in the coming ten-fifteen years and sea level will rise by 3-4 meters all over
the earth
Q184) Different seasons are formed because
Options:
A) Sun is moving around the earth B) of revolution of the earth around the Sun on its orbit C) of rotation
of the earth around its axis D) because earth is tilted when it revolves around sun.
Q185) Consider the following statements:
1. Ozone is found mostly in the Stratosphere.
2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the surface of the earth.
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on the earth.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Options:
A) 1 and 3 B) 2 and 4 C) 2 and 3 D) 1 and 4
Q186) The natural vegetation of Savana consists of:
Options:
A) Tall grass B) Scrub jungle C) Short grass D) Trees
Q187) The much discussed Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following states?
Options:
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) Haryana D) Uttaranchal
Q188) What is major source harmful radiation in the house?
Options:
A) Tube light B) Oven C) Color TV D) Heater
Q189) The biggest reserves of thorium are in:
Options:
A) India B) China C) The Soviet Union D) U.S.A
Q190) The term 'Regur' refers to:
Options:
A) Laterite soils B) Black Cotton soils C) Red soils D) Deltaic Alluvial soils
Q191) Where are most of the earth's active volcanoes concentrated?
Options:
A) Europe B) Pacific Ocean C) Africa D) South America
Q192) The fertility of the soil can be increased by growing:
Options:
A) Cereals B) Fibre Crops C) Legumes D) Root Crops
Q193) The coldest place on the earth is:
Options:
A) Halifax B) Chicago C) Siachen D) Verkhoyansk (Antarctica)
Q194) Which of the following pairs of the river dam project and the State in which it is located, is not
correct?
Options:
A) Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh B) Tungabhadra — Tamilnadu C) Bhakra Nangal --Punjab D)
Hirakud ---Orissa
Q195) When does the moon come between the sun and the earth?
Options:
A) Lunar eclipse B) solar eclipse C) side real day D) full moon day
Q196) Turpentine oil used in medicine' is obtained from:
Options:
A) Acacia B) Chir pin C) Myrobalans D) Kusum
Q197) Which of the following is cold stream?
Options:
A) Curasia B) Labrador C) Gulf of stream D) Hakuna Matata
Q198) Solar eclipse takes place when:
Options:
A) The moon comes between the sun and the earth B) The earth comes between the sun and the moon C)
The sun comes between the moon and the earth D) None of the above
Q199) Which of the following is the smallest ocean of the world?
Options:
A) Pacific B) Indian C) Atlantic D) Arctic
Q200) The planets are kept is motion in their respective orbits by the:
Options:
A) Rotation of the sun on its axis B) Gravitation and centrifugal forces C) Great size and spherical shape
D) Rotation and the density of the planets
Q201) Which of the following soil is very hard to cultivate?
Options:
A) Alluvial B) Red C) Black D) Sandy
Q202) Atmospheric pressure exerted on earth is due to:
Options:
A) rotation of earth B) revolution of earth C) gravitational pull D) uneven heating of earth
Q203) The southern tip of India is:
Options:
A) Cape Comorin B) Point Calimere C) Indira Point in Nicobar Islands D) Kovalam in Trivandrum
Q204) In determining the Indian climate, major role played by Himalayas is/are:
Options:
A) The east-west extension of the Great-Himalayas does not permit the summer monsoon to cross it and
thus keeps its sojourn restricted to India B) The direct the summer monsoon towards the north-west C)
During the winter they stop the southward penetration of the cold and dry polar air D) All of the above
Q205) The rock material carried by a glacier is called
Options:
A) alluvium B) meanders C) nodules D) moraines
Q206) Krishna Raja Sagar Dam is built across the river:
Options:
A) Kaveri B) Tungabhadra C) Krishna D) Godavari
Q207) The greatest diversity of animal and plants species occurs in:
Options:
A) temperate deciduous forests B) tropical moist forests C) heavily polluted rivers D) desert lands
Q208) What is meant by the term "cirrus"?
Options:
A) A low cloud B) A rain-bearing cloud C) A high-cloud D) A hail-bearing cloud
Q209) The latitude of a place is expressed by its angular distance in relation to:
Options:
A) Equator B) South Pole C) Axis of the Earth D) North Pole
Q210) Which country is known for the most frequent earthquakes?
Options:
A) Italy B) Japan C) China D) Iran
Q211) High velds are the temperate grasslands of:
Options:
A) Africa B) South Australia C) Europe and Asia D) South America
Q212) For which of the following reasons, clouds do not rain in desert?
Options:
A) Maximum air velocity B) Minimum temperature C) Minimum air velocity D) Minimum humidity
Q213) Light Year is a unit of
Options:
A) Intensity of light B) Distance C) Time D) Planetary motion
Q214) All vital atmospheric processes leading to various climatic and weather conditions take place in
the:
Options:
A) Troposphere B) Ionosphere C) Exosphere D) Stratosphere
Q215) The Hirakud Project is on which of the following rivers?
Options:
A) Godavari B) Mahanadi C) Damodar D) Kosi
Q216) The circulation of ocean water occurs
Options:
A) only laterally B) only vertically C) both laterally and vertically D) neither laterally nor vertically
Q217) During winter, the northern half of India is warmer than areas of similar latitudinal location by 3°
to 8° because:
Options:
A) India is essentially a tropical country. B) The surface wind blows in a particular direction in one
season C) The Great Himalayas check the penetration of cold polar air into India effectively. D) Of
winter rains
Q218) Which river is flowing near Ayodhya?
Options:
A) Ganga B) Yamuna C) Saryu D) Krishna
Q219) Which of the following States has rich forests of sandalwood?
Options:
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Karnataka C) Kerala D) Madhya Pradesh
Q220) The Nagarjunsagar project is on the river:
Options:
A) Sutlej B) Narmada C) Krishna D) Kaveri
Q221) The cold oceanic current passing through the coast of North America is known as:
Options:
A) Kuroshio Current B) Gulf Stream C) Labrador Current D) Falkland Current
Q222) Most of the weather phenomena take place in the:
Options:
A) stratosphere B) troposphere C) tropopause D) ionosphere
Q223) Which is called the "Tiger State"?
Options:
A) Rajasthan B) Madhya Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh D) Jammu & Kashmir
Q224) A wind which is not affected by the effect of ground friction is called a
Options:
A) prevailing wind B) jet stream C) katabatic wind D) geostrophic wind
Q225) The 23South latitude is known as
Options:
A) The Tropic of Cancer B) The Tropic of Capricorn C) The Equator D) The Prime Meridian
Q226) The sky appears blue because
Options:
A) It is actually blue B) The atmosphere scatters blue light more than the others C) All colours interfere
to produce blue D) In white light, blue colour dominates
Q227) It represent the permanent loss of hearing and no recovery?
Options:
A) NISTS B) NIPTS C) NICCS D) NIDTS
Q228) Siachen is
Options:
A) Limiting glacier zone between India and Pakistan B) Limiting desert zone between India and
Pakistan C) Limiting zone between China and Pakistan D) Limiting zone between India and Myanmar
Q229) The smallest Continent is
Options:
A) Europe B) Australia C) Antarctica D) South America
Q230) Where is the Siachin Glacier situated in India?
Options:
A) Uttar Pradesh B) Himachal Pradesh C) Jammu & Kashmir D) Sikkim
Q231) At the Equator, the duration of a day is
Options:
A) 10 hrs B) 12 hrs C) 14 hrs D) 16 hrs
Q232) Savanna grasslands are found in
Options:
A) Australia B) Africa C) East Asia D) South America
Q233) Through which of the following countries does the river Tigris flow?
Options:
A) Egypt B) Iran C) Italy D) Iraq
Q234) Summer solstice occurs on
Options:
A) 44256 B) 44287 C) 44317 D) 44348
Q235) Port Blair is situated in
Options:
A) North Andaman B) South Andaman C) Middle Andaman D) Little Andaman
Q236) Teak and Sal are the principal trees in the forests known as
Options:
A) Tropical moist evergreen B) Dry deciduous C) Tropical moist deciduous D) Dry evergreen
Q237) In the interior of earth
Options:
A) the temperature falls with increasing depth B) the pressure falls with increasing depth C) the
temperature rises with increasing depth D) pressure remains constant with varying depth
Q238) Jawahar Tunnel, the largest in India, is located in the state of
Options:
A) Himachal Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) West Bengal D) J & K
Q239) In which South American country does one find the Atacama desert?
Options:
A) Chile B) Peru C) Brazil D) Columbia
Q240) Winter rains in north and north-west India are generally associated with the phenomenon of
Options:
A) Retreating monsoon B) Temperate cyclones C) Local thunderstorms D) Shift in Jet stream movement
Q241) Which one of the following rivers is known as "Sorrow of Bihar"?
Options:
A) Damodar B) Gandaki C) Kosi D) Sone
Q242) Imaginary lines drawn on a global map from pole to pole and from the perpendicular to the
equator are called
Options:
A) Contours B) Isobars C) Meridians D) Steppes
Q243) A lunar eclipse occurs when
Options:
A) Sun, Moon and Earth are not in the same line B) Earth comes between the Sun and the Moon C)
Moon comes between the Sun and the Earth D) Sun comes between the Earth and the Moon
Q244) Which of the following passes through India?
Options:
A) Tropic of Capricorn B) Tropic of Cancer C) Equator D) 0° Longitude
Q245) When a ship crosses the International Date Line from west to East
Options:
A) It loses one day B) It gains one day C) It loses half-a-day D) It gains half-a-day
Q246) It gains half-a-day
Options:
A) India & Sri Lanka B) North & South Korea C) Pakistan & China D) Britain & France
Q247) Vajrai Waterfall the highest waterfall in India is located in the state of
Options:
A) Uttar Pradesh B) West Bengal C) Karnataka D) Maharashtra
Q248) Which of the following ports has a free trade zone?
Options:
A) Kandla B) Cochin C) Madras D) Tuticorin
Q249) When the moon is near the horizon, then it appears bigger because of
Options:
A) Atmospheric refraction B) Scattering of light C) Diffraction D) Total internal reflection
Q250) Tsunamis are huge sea waves caused by:
Options:
A) Earthquakes B) Volcanoes C) Winds D) Icebergs
Q251) Equinox' means
Options:
A) Days are longer than nights B) Days and nights are equal C) Days are shorter than nights D) None of
these
Q252) International Date Line passes through
Options:
A) 0° Greenwich B) 180° Greenwich C) 900 Greenwich D) 2700 Greenwich
Q253) Suez navigation canal links up Mediterranean Sea with the
Options:
A) Atlantic Ocean B) Pacific Ocean C) North Sea D) Red Sea
Q254) Which. of the following people are related to T.E. Lawrence?
Options:
A) The people of China B) Inhabitants of Mangole C) The people of Afghanistan D) The people of Arab
Q255) The longest dam in India is
Options:
A) Bhakra Dam B) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam C) Hirakud Dam D) Kosi Dam
Q256) The standard time of India is the local time of
Options:
A) 81° East longitude B) 82.5° East longitude C) 84° East longitude D) 86° East longitude
Q257) Match List I (Types of Natural Regions) with List II ( Areas Associated with the Regions) and
select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
Options:
A) I --5, II --4, III --2, IV --3 B) I --2, III --3, II --1, IV --5 C) I --2, II --4, III --1, IV --3 D) I --5, II --3, III
--2, IV --4
Q258) Life expectancy is highest in the world in
Options:
A) Canada B) Germany C) Japan D) Norway
Q259) Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?
Options:
A) Earth B) Jupiter C) Mars D) Venus
Q260) Which of the following is the highest waterfall in the world?
Options:
A) Angel B) Ribbin C) Hungela D) Quecanag
Q261) Peso is the currency of
Options:
A) Cuba B) Bermuda C) Grenada D) Jamaica
Q262) Which city was known as the 'Manchester of India'?
Options:
A) Mumbai B) Surat C) Ahmedabad D) Ludhiana
Q263) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India is situated on:
Options:
A) Palni Hills B) Annamalai Mountain C) Nilgiri Mountain D) Cardamom Hills
Q264) The smallest continent of the world is
Options:
A) Europe B) Antarctica C) South America D) Australia
Q265) The earthquake waves which have transverse movements are known as
Options:
A) Primary waves B) Secondary waves C) Surface waves D) None of the above
Q266) Which region of India receives rainfall due to western disturbance in winter?
Options:
A) Western region B) Central region C) Eastern region D) North-Western region
Q267) What is the correct sequence of the rivers Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the
descending order of their lengths?
Options:
A) Godavari-Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi B) Godavari-Narmada-Mahanadi-Tapi C) Narmada-Godavari-
Tapi-Mahanadi D) Narmada-Tapi-Godavari-Mahanadi
Q268) Which one of the following is the longest glacier of India?
Options:
A) Pindari B) Gangotri C) Siachen D) Zemu
Q269) Nubian desert is in
Options:
A) Ethiopia B) Egypt C) Sudan D) Somalia
Q270) The longest highway in India runs from
Options:
A) Kolkata to Jammu B) Jammu to Kanya Kumari C) Ambala to Nagercoil D) Varanasi to Kanya
Kumari
Q271) The new alluvial deposits found the Gangetic plain are known as
Options:
A) Bhabar B) Bhangar C) Khadar D) Terai
Q272) Which water body separates Australia from New Zealand?
Options:
A) Cook Straits B) Tasman Sea C) Mc. munro Sound D) Great Barrier Reef
Q273) Which of the following district is on the international border of India
Options:
A) Gorakhpur B) West Khasi Hills C) Kinnaur D) Kullu
Q274) Which one of the following is not the vegetation in Selva forests?
Options:
A) Epiphytes B) Xerophytes C) Liana D) Hydrophytes
Q275) How far the axis of earth is inclined of its orbital surface?
Options:
A) 23 B) 66 C) 180 D) It is not inclined
Q276) Which of the following is only star?
Options:
A) Moon B) Venus C) Earth D) Sun
Q277) Israel has common borders with
Options:
A) Lebanon, Syria, Jordan and Egypt B) Lebanon, Syria, Turkey and Jordan C) Cyprus, Turkey, Jordan
and Egypt D) Turkey, , Syria, Iraq and Yemen
Q278) Which one among the following languages has largest number of speakers in the world?
Options:
A) Bengali B) French C) Japanese D) Portuguese
Q279) Where was electricity introduced in India?
Options:
A) Kolkata B) Darjeeling C) Mumbai D) Chennai
Q280) The capital of Laos is
Options:
A) Vientiane B) Ankara C) Abu Dhabi D) Hanoi
Q281) Which strait separates India from Sri Lanka?
Options:
A) Mandeb B) Magellan C) Malacca D) Palk
Q282) Which of the following is the largest island?
Options:
A) Sumatra B) Madagascar C) Honshu D) Cuba
Q283) Radcliff Line' is a boundary line between
Options:
A) India and Bangladesh B) India and Bhutan C) India and China D) India and Pakistan
Q284) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Options:
A) Panna: Diamond B) Neyveli: Lignite C) Mysore: Marble D) Sambhar: Salt
Q285) Where does the primitive community. of Bushman live?
Options:
A) Sahara desert B) Thar desert C) Kalahari desert D) Atacama desert
Q286) Difference of longitudinal of two places on the earth is 15°. What will be the difference in its
local time?
Options:
A) No difference B) 1 hour C) 2 hours D) 15 hours
Q287) Among the following cities, which one is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
Options:
A) Delhi B) Kolkata C) Jodhpur D) Nagpur
Q288) In what regions can the sun be seen at midnight?
Options:
A) The tropical zone B) Warm temperate regions C) The Arctic and Antarctic regions D) Anywhere at
the time of lunar eclipse
Q289) Which among the following planets intersects the orbit of Neptune?
Options:
A) Mercury B) Pluto C) Earth D) Uranus
Q290) Which of the following countries is called the "Country of white elephants"?
Options:
A) Thailand B) Kuwait C) South Africa D) India
Q291) Where is the famous shore temple located?
Options:
A) Puri B) Visakhapatnam C) Mamallapuram D) Chennai
Q292) The area covered by forest in India is about:
Options:
A) 0.46 B) 0.33 C) 0.23 D) 0.19
Q293) Jog waterfall, the highest waterfall in India, is located in
Options:
A) Kerala B) Karnataka C) Maharashtra D) Madhya Pradesh
Q294) The first man to reach the South Pole on I December 14, 1911 was
Options:
A) Commander Robert, E. Peary of U.S. B) Roald Amundsen from Norway C) The Navigator Ferdinand
Magellan D) Sir Francis Drake of England
Q295) Freely suspended magnetic needle stands in which direction?
Options:
A) North-West direction B) North-South direction C) North-East direction D) South-West direction
Q296) The biochemical processes taking place in the body is known as
Options:
A) Catabolism B) Metabolism C) Anabolism D) None of above
Q297) World's first man in space was
Options:
A) Neil Armstrong B) Yuri Gagarin C) Kalpna Chawla D) Edwin Eugene Aldrin
Q298) The area covered by forest in India is about
Options:
A) 0.46 B) 0.33 C) 0.23 D) 0.21
Q299) Ozone layer depletion is mainly due to
Options:
A) CFC B) carbon monoxide C) carbon dioxide D) methane
Q300) which of the following is long term effect (tertiary effect) of flooding?
Options:
A) Increase in corruption B) Destruction of wild life habitat C) Sediment deposition D) All of the above
Q301) Fire balls are
Options:
A) very bright meteors B) volcanic eruption C) forest fire D) None of these
Q302) Nagarjuna Sagar dam is situated on river
Options:
A) Tungabhadra B) Cauvery C) Krishna D) Godavari
Q303) Who said that members of the same species are not alike?
Options:
A) Darwin B) Herber C) Best D) Good
Q304) Which of the following can be the effect of meteorite impact?
Options:
A) Massive earthquake B) Dust in atmosphere C) Widespread wildfire D) All of these
Q305) An atom bomb is based on the principle of
Options:
A) nuclear fusion B) nuclear spallation C) nuclear fission D) None of these
Q306) Malaria is caused by
Options:
A) bacterial infection B) viral infection
C) parasitic infection D) fungal infection
Q307) Which of the following can cause explosive volcanic eruption?
Options:
A) Low viscosity of magma B) High viscosity of magma C) High water content in ground D) None of
these
Q308) Which of the following is/ are true about shooting stars?
Options:
A) Certain objects which appear to fall from sky leaving a streak of light are called shooting stars. B)
they are also called meteors. C) As there stars travels through atmosphere, these pieces become hot, burn
and emit light thus acquiring brightness. D) All of these
Q309) Which of the following is not a National Park?
Options:
A) Kanheri B) Gir C) Corbett D) Kaziranga
Q310) Water is always involved with landslides. This is because it:
Options:
A) reduces the shear strength of rocks. B) increases the weight of the overburden C) enhances chemical
weathering D) is a universal solvent
Q311) Water for civil supplies are commonly purified by
Options:
A) Chlorination B) Distillation
C) Filtration D) Decantation
Q312) Which of the following is not cyclone prone area in India?
Options:
A) Orissa B) Gujarat C) Andhra Pradesh D) Assam(Asom)
Q313) The most significant impact of volcanic eruption has been felt in the form of:
Options:
A) change in weather B) sinking of islands C) loss of vegetation D) extinction of animals
Q314) Which of the following Hydel power projects is situated in Jammu and Kashmir?
Options:
A) Lok Tak B) Riwand C) Salal D) Upper Sileru
Q315) Atmosphere exists because of
Options:
A) gravitational force of earth B) revolution of earth C) rotation of earth D) None of these
Q316) Sea level rise results primarily due to:
Options:
A) Heavy rainfall B) Melting of glaciers C) Submarine volcanism D) Seafloor spreading
Q317) Pitchblende is the ore of
Options:
A) rubidium B) francium C) radium D) uranium
Q318) Which one of the following is different from the other three?
Options:
A) Venus B) Jupiter C) Uranus D) Neptune
Q319) Which tree species is used for making railway sleepers?
Options:
A) Sal B) Teak C) Redwood D) Sardines
Q320) What is true about Lonar Lake?
Options:
A) It is a Salt Lake B) It is a Crater Lake C) It is a Lagoon Lake D) It is situated in Rift Valley
Q321) The largest continent in the world is:
Options:
A) North America B) Africa C) Asia D) Europe
Q322) What is the full form of IPCC?
Options:
A) International Panel on Climate Change B) International Panel on Carbon Consumption C)
Intergovernmental Panel on Climate D) None of these
Q323) Complete loss of memory is termed
Options:
A) Amnesia B) Coma C) Trauma D) Paranesia
Q324) Which of the following dams is not on Narmada river?
Options:
A) Indira Sagar Project B) Jobat Project C) Maheshwar Hydel Power Project D) Koyna Power Project
Q325) Which of the following is a secondary or tertiary effect of volcanic eruption?
Options:
A) Hot ash flow (pyro-elastic flow) B) Mudflow (Lahars) C) Volcanic land slide (debris flow and debris
avalanches) D) Famine and Disease
Q326) Which of the elements is essential for animals but not in plants?
Options:
A) Potassium B) Iodine C) Calcium D) Phosphorus
Q327) The maximum emission of pollutants from fuel sources in India is caused by:
Options:
A) Coal B) Firewood C) Refuse burning D) Vegetable waste product
Q328) Which of the following is not a bird sanctuary?
Options:
A) Bharatpur Sanctuary B) Periyar Sanctuary C) Manjira Sanctuary D) Nelapathu Sanctuary
Q329) The tallest trees in the world are found in the region.
Options:
A) Equatorial region B) Temperate region C) Monsoon region D) Mediterranean region
Q330) The main constituents of biogas are
Options:
A) Methane and Carbon dioxide B) Methane and Nitric oxide C) Methane, Hydrogen and Nitric oxide
D) Methane and Sulphur dioxide
Q331) Famous Silent valley is situated in:
Options:
A) Kerala B) Sikkim C) Himachal Pradesh D) None of these
Q332) The concentration of Total Dissolved Solids (TDS) in drinking water should not exceed
Options:
A) 500 mg/L B) 400 mg/ L C) 300 mg/L D) 200 mg/ L
Q333) Which of the following is/are sources of soil pollution?
Options:
A) Mining and Quarrying B) Sewage sludge C) Demolition and Construction D) All of the above
Q334) Chipko movement' was first started by:
Options:
A) Arundhati Roy B) Medha Patkar C) Ila Bhatt D) Sunderlal Bahuguna
Q335) Which State is regarded as the land of five-rivers?
Options:
A) Uttar Pradesh B) Punjab C) Chhattisgarh D) Assam (Asom)
Q336) Liquid Petroleum Gas contains mainly
Options:
A) methane B) butane C) ethane D) hydrogen
Q337) The mangrove vegetation in India is found in:
Options:
A) Gangetic delta region B) East Himalayn states C) Western ghat region D) Eastern ghat region
Q338) Which one of the following is an antidote for lead poisoning?
Options:
A) Nickel B) Cis-platina C) White of egg D) EDTA
Q339) The largest continent in the world is:
Options:
A) North America B) Africa C) Asia D) Europe
Q340) Tehri Dam Project is located in which of the following states?
Options:
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Rajasthan C) Haryana D) Uttarakhand
Q341) The disease caused by swelling of the membrane over spinal cord and brain is
Options:
A) Paralysis B) Meningitis C) Sclerosis D) Leukaemia
Q342) Who said that members of the same species are not alike?
Options:
A) Darwin B) Herber C) Best D) Good
Q343) Which of the following is not a geological hazard?
Options:
A) Earthquake B) Avalanche C) Landslide D) Drought
Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) A, Q7) B, Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) D, Q11) A, Q12) A, Q13) D,
Q14) A, Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) A, Q21) A, Q22) A, Q23) A, Q24) D, Q25)
B, Q26) A, Q27) B, Q28) C, Q29) D, Q30) A, Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) B, Q35) A, Q36) B,
Q37) B, Q38) C, Q39) A, Q40) B, Q41) B, Q42) C, Q43) D, Q44) A, Q45) A, Q46) A, Q47) A, Q48)
A, Q49) A, Q50) B, Q51) B, Q52) D, Q53) B, Q54) D, Q55) B, Q56) D, Q57) B, Q58) D, Q59) A,
Q60) C, Q61) A, Q62) A, Q63) D, Q64) D, Q65) D, Q66) D, Q67) B, Q68) A, Q69) A, Q70) B, Q71)
B, Q72) C, Q73) A, Q74) B, Q75) A, Q76) B, Q77) C, Q78) C, Q79) B, Q80) B, Q81) C, Q82) A,
Q83) D, Q84) D, Q85) C, Q86) B, Q87) C, Q88) C, Q89) B, Q90) B, Q91) A, Q92) B, Q93) A, Q94)
C, Q95) B, Q96) A, Q97) A, Q98) C, Q99) A, Q100) C, Q101) D, Q102) B, Q103) D, Q104) C, Q105)
C, Q106) B, Q107) C, Q108) B, Q109) B, Q110) A, Q111) D, Q112) B, Q113) C, Q114) B, Q115) A,
Q116) A, Q117) A, Q118) D, Q119) A, Q120) C, Q121) C, Q122) D, Q123) A, Q124) C, Q125) A,
Q126) C, Q127) B, Q128) A, Q129) A, Q130) A, Q131) D, Q132) B, Q133) C, Q134) B, Q135) D,
Q136) B, Q137) B, Q138) A, Q139) C, Q140) B, Q141) A, Q142) D, Q143) C, Q144) B, Q145) D,
Q146) B, Q147) D, Q148) A, Q149) A, Q150) B, Q151) A, Q152) C, Q153) D, Q154) B, Q155) B,
Q156) A, Q157) A, Q158) D, Q159) B, Q160) C, Q161) A, Q162) B, Q163) B, Q164) B, Q165) A,
Q166) D, Q167) A, Q168) C, Q169) D, Q170) B, Q171) D, Q172) B, Q173) C, Q174) B, Q175) C,
Q176) B, Q177) C, Q178) A, Q179) A, Q180) C, Q181) C, Q182) C, Q183) D, Q184) D, Q185) A,
Q186) A, Q187) D, Q188) A, Q189) A, Q190) B, Q191) B, Q192) C, Q193) D, Q194) B, Q195) B,
Q196) B, Q197) B, Q198) A, Q199) D, Q200) B, Q201) B, Q202) C, Q203) C, Q204) D, Q205) D,
Q206) A, Q207) B, Q208) C, Q209) A, Q210) B, Q211) A, Q212) A, Q213) B, Q214) A, Q215) B,
Q216) C, Q217) C, Q218) C, Q219) B, Q220) C, Q221) C, Q222) B, Q223) B, Q224) D, Q225) B,
Q226) B, Q227) B, Q228) A, Q229) B, Q230) C, Q231) B, Q232) B, Q233) D, Q234) D, Q235) B,
Q236) C, Q237) C, Q238) D, Q239) A, Q240) A, Q241) C, Q242) C, Q243) B, Q244) B, Q245) A,
Q246) A, Q247) D, Q248) A, Q249) A, Q250) A, Q251) B, Q252) B, Q253) D, Q254) D, Q255) C,
Q256) B, Q257) A, Q258) C, Q259) B, Q260) A, Q261) A, Q262) C, Q263) A, Q264) D, Q265) B,
Q266) D, Q267) B, Q268) C, Q269) C, Q270) D, Q271) C, Q272) B, Q273) C, Q274) B, Q275) A,
Q276) D, Q277) A, Q278) D, Q279) B, Q280) A, Q281) D, Q282) B, Q283) D, Q284) C, Q285) C,
Q286) B, Q287) B, Q288) C, Q289) B, Q290) A, Q291) C, Q292) C, Q293) B, Q294) B, Q295) B
Q296) B, Q297) B, Q298) D, Q299) A, Q300) D, Q301) A, Q302) C, Q303) A, Q304) D, Q305) C,
Q306) C, Q307) B, Q308) D, Q309) A, Q310) B, Q311) A, Q312) B, Q313) A, Q314) C, Q315) A,
Q316) B, Q317) D, Q318) A, Q319) A, Q320) B, Q321) C, Q322) C, Q323) A, Q324) D, Q325) D,
Q326) C, Q327) C, Q328) B, Q329) B, Q330) A, Q331) A, Q332) A, Q333) D, Q334) D, Q335) B,
Q336) B, Q337) A, Q338) D, Q339) C, Q340) D, Q341) B, Q342) A, Q343) D,
Explanations:
Q167) E denotes Universal Negative Proposition.
An E-proposition distributes bidirectionally between the subject and predicate. From the categorical
proposition "No beetles are mammals", we can infer that no mammals are beetles. Since all beetles are
defined not to be mammals, and all mammals are defined not to be beetles, both classes are distributed.
Classification of Propositions:
(a) Universal Affirmative Proposition – A type
(b) Universal Negative Proposition – E type
(c) Particular Affirmative Proposition – I type
(d) Particular Negative Proposition – O type
PEOPLE AND ENVIRONMENT PART B:
Q1) IUCN' stands for
Options:
A) International Unity on Community and Nationality B) Inter-state Unity of Culture Nature C) Indian
Union Congress Nation D) International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
Q2) Zone of atmosphere near the ground is
Options:
A) Stratosphere B) Mesosphere C) Troposphere D) Homosphere
Q3) Approximately how many people are alive today?
Options:
A) 1 billion B) 2 billion C) 4 billion D) More than 6 billion
Q4) Which of the following is the transition layer between stratosphere and the mesosphere?
Options:
A) Stratopause B) Tropopause C) Mesopause D) Thermopause
Q5) Emphysema disease is caused by
Options:
A) Carbon dioxide B) Sulphur dioxide C) Mercury D) Photochemical smog
Q6) Submerged hydrophytes have commonly dissected leaves for
Options:
A) Increasing number of stomata B) Decreasing surface area C) Reducing effect of water currents D)
Increasing surface area
Q7) Ozone layer depletion or hole in ozone layer is being chiefly found in
Options:
A) Russia B) South pole C) North pole D) None of these
Q8) Biosphere Reserves are also notified as
Options:
A) Ecosystems B) Woodlands C) National Parks D) Conservation
Q9) Who developed the 'hot spots concept' in 1988?
Options:
A) M.S.Swaminathan B) P.K.Iyengar C) Norman Myers D) George Bush
Q10) On the basis of the type of environment being polluted, we may recognize
Options:
A) Air pollution B) Soil pollution C) Water pollution D) All of these
Q11) Biodiversity is an abbreviation of
Options:
A) Biological rhythm B) Abiotic factor C) Biotic factor D) Biological diversity
Q12) An ecological community is an assemblage of
Options:
A) Food webs B) Closely related species C) Family units D) Interacting populations
Q13) Humans interfere with the natural phosphorus cycle by
Options:
A) Causing erosion of land B) Adding phosphate fertilizers to agricultural soils C) Dumping sewage into
rivers and lakes D) All of the above
Q14) The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its
Options:
A) Birth rate B) Death rate C) Limiting resource D) Population growth rate
Q15) Exponential growth occurs when there is
Options:
A) Sexual reproduction only B) No inhibition from crowding C) Asexual reproduction only D) A fixed
carrying capacity
Q16) Pollutants like PAN and O3 (Photochemical smog) cause
Options:
A) Irritation of eye B) Irritation nose and eye C) Respiratory distress D) All of the above
Q17) Greenpeace is
Options:
A) NGO B) An inhibitory process C) Government policy for speciation D) All of the above
Q18) The wet forests of Amazon basin are known as which one of the following?
Options:
A) Pampas B) Selvas C) Campos D) Lianos
Q19) Fluorides enter plant leaves through
Options:
A) Leaf base B) Root C) Stomata D) Stem
Q20) The geographic limits within which a population exists is its
Options:
A) Range B) Habitat C) Niche D) Territory
Q21) "Ecosystem is the system resulting from the integration of all the living and non-living factors of
the environment". This state was of
Options:
A) Haeckel B) Tansley C) Mishra D) Odum
Q22) The special characteristics of plants and animals that enable them to be successful under prevailing
set of environmental conditions are called
Options:
A) Speciation B) Adaptation C) Evolution D) Ecotype
Q23) Eutrophication means
Options:
A) Nutrient dissipated B) Forest containing acid rain C) Nutrient enrichment D) None of the above
Q24) What percentage of land area of India provides to the global diversity?
Options:
A) 2.4% B) 5% C) 8% D) 19%
Q25) Cultural eutrophication is caused by the addition of too many
Options:
A) Ammonium B) Nitrate C) Phosphate D) All of these
Q26) Aerosols are particles in air less than
Options:
A) 1 u B) 6 u C) 100 u D) 150 u
Q27) Agenda-21' is the product of
Options:
A) Evolution B) Earth Summit C) Speciation D) Both B and C
Q28) Biodiversity is of use to modern agriculture as a
Options:
A) Source of new biodegradable pesticides B) Source of new crops C) Source of material for breeding
improved varieties D) All of the above are correct
Q29) The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio de Janiero resulted into a Convention on Biodiversity, which
came into force on
Options:
A) 5 June, 1992 B) 19 December, 1993 C) 29 December, 1993 D) 1 April, 2000
Q30) The earth planet along with the atmosphere (i.e., air, water and land) that sustains life is called
Options:
A) Troposphere B) Biosphere C) Stratosphere D) Ecosystem
Q31) Which of the following is not correctly matched?
Options:
A) Black cotton soil-Rich in calcium B) Laterite-Contains aluminium C) Chernozen-Richest soil D)
Terra rosa-Most suitable for roses
Q32) Which of the following is the most widely used form of renewable energy?
Options:
A) Coal B) Fossil fuel C) Hydro power D) Wood
Q33) Population dispersion is the
Options:
A) Mixing of two populations B) Spatial distribution of individuals C) Movement from one fixed point
to another and back again D) Movement away from a natal site
Q34) Which of the following is the most harmful pollutant?
Options:
A) CH4 B) NO2 C) CO2 D) SO2
Q35) Man-engineered ecosystem is
Options:
A) Marine B) Grassland C) Cropland D) Forest
Q36) The main function of Biosphere Reserves are
Options:
A) Conservation B) Scientific research and education C) Development of ecological aspects D) All of
the above
Q37) The habitat of a population is the
Options:
A) Geographic area it covers B) Set of conditions and resources it uses C) Set of interactions it has with
other populations D) Places where it lives
Q38) The population growth rate 'r' is inversely related to
Options:
A) Generation time B) Age structure C) Clutch size D) Number of clutches per life time
Q39) Noise pollution is created if noise is in excess to
Options:
A) 80-100 Db B) 70-75 db C) 50-60 db D) 40-65 db
Q40) The example of endothermic animal is
Options:
A) Man B) Frogs C) Snakes D) Both B and C
Q41) The 'IUCN' Red List System' was initiated in the year
Options:
A) 1963 B) 1969 C) 1992 D) 2000
Q42) Population size may decrease as a result of
Options:
A) Emigration B) Mortality C) Both A and B D) Zonation
Q43) On the 2000 Red List how many species are listed as threatened?
Options:
A) 5484 B) 11046 C) 1939 D) 143
Q44) Which of the following is the basic unit of study in ecology?
Options:
A) Population B) Environment C) Biosphere D) Organisms
Q45) Minamata' disease in Japan was chiefly due to
Options:
A) Lead pollution B) Fluoride pollution C) Mercury pollution D) Radioactive pollution
Q46) A Biosphere Reserve consists of
Options:
A) Core zone B) Buffer zone C) Transition zone D) All of these
Q47) Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight cause the reaction that produces
Options:
A) Fluorides B) SO2 C) Ozone D) CO
Q48) Who among the following is known as "father of ecology in India"?
Options:
A) P.Maheshwari B) S.K.Kashyap C) B.P. pal D) Ramdeo Mishra
Q49) Consider the components of a food chain: Producers->herbivores- >carnivores->top carnivores.
Which level contains the most energy?
Options:
A) Herbivores B) Carnivores C) Top carnivores D) Producers
Q50) Wetland conservation programmes are generally based on
Options:
A) Checking waste disposal in wetlands B) Preparation of wetland enveloping C) Reduction of
excessive inflow of nutrients D) All of the above
Q51) Which of the following is a true statement?
Options:
A) Since gases not derived from fossil fuel combustion are involved, reduction in fossil fuel burning will
not help the green house effect B) Global warming is so imminent that nothing can be done C) Global
warming is of no immediate concern D) Reduction in fossil fuel burning will lessen the greenhouse
effect
Q52) Who first of all coined the term ‘ecology'?
Options:
A) Reiter B) Haeckel C) Odum D) Clement
Q53) Loss of minerals on the hills is due to
Options:
A) Strip mining B) Terracing C) Soil erosion by water D) Contour-strip cropping
Q54) The basic strategies of biodiversity conservation is/are
Options:
A) In situ (on site) B) Ex situ (off site) C) Both A and B D) None of these
Q55) Most interacting populations are
Options:
A) Coevolved B) Mutualistic C) Parasitic D) Symbiotic
Q56) "The unwanted sound dumped into the atmosphere leading to health hazards" is meant for
Options:
A) Noise pollution B) Water pollution C) Air pollution D) Radioactive pollution
Q57) The stratospheric ozone depletion leads to
Options:
A) Forest fires B) Global warming C) Increase in the incidence of skin cancer D) All of the above
Q58) To achieve conservation of biological diversity it is usually necessary to
Options:
A) Introduce certain species B) Establish protected areas C) Restore ecosystems D) All of the above
Q59) Extinction of species includes
Options:
A) Natural extinction B) Mass extinction C) Anthropogenic extinction D) All of the above
Q60) Which of the following atoms typically cycles within the most localized area?
Options:
A) Sulphur B) Phosphorus C) Carbon D) Nitrogen
Q61) Most agriculture makes use of plants from
Options:
A) Early secondary succession B) Late secondary succession C) Early primary succession D) Late
primary succession
Q62) Salinity of the soil is often caused due to
Options:
A) Excessive addition of rainwater B) Excessive leaching C) Rapid evaporation of surface water D)
Accumulation of soluble minerals near or in the surface in arid region
Q63) B.O.D. test is made for measuring
Options:
A) Noise pollution B) Soil pollution C) Water pollution D) Air pollution
Q64) Cyanosis is caused by
Options:
A) Copper B) Chromium C) Nitrate concentration D) Carbon dioxide
Q65) Which of the following is/are the chief source(s) of soil and water pollution?
Options:
A) Thermal power station's waste product B) Agro-industry C) Mining D) All of the above
Q66) Which of the following organisms is iteroparous?
Options:
A) Bacterium B) Pacific salmon C) Human D) Annual plant
Q67) Smog is a common pollutant in places having
Options:
A) Excessive ammonium in the air B) High temperature C) Excessive SO2 in the air D) Low
temperature
Q68) The study of interrelations between organisms and their environment is known as
Options:
A) Biosphere B) Autecology C) Synecology D) Ecology
Q69) Soil conservation can be best achieved by
Options:
A) Good plant covers B) Wind Screens C) Low rainfall D) Restricted human activity
Q70) Which of the following is/are abiotic factor(s)?
Options:
A) Light B) Temperature C) Moisture D) All of these
Q71) A population is a group of
Options:
A) Communities in an ecosystem B) Individual in a family C) Species in a community D) Individuals in
a species
Q72) About how much of the solar energy that falls on the leaves of a plant is converted to chemical
energy by photosynthesis?
Options:
A) 30% B) 90% C) 1% D) 75%
Q73) An ecological pyramid of energy flow is often an inverted pyramid in which of the following
ecosystems?
Options:
A) Tundra B) Ocean C) Desert D) Rain forest
Q74) A dental disease characterized by mottling of teeth is due to the presence of certain chemical element
in drinking water. The element responsible for this is
Options:
A) Mercury B) Fluorine C) Molybdenum D) Lead
Q75) The country which hosted the first world Earth Summit on conservation of environment is
Options:
A) USA B) Brazil C) India D) UK
Q76) Tropical rain forest destruction is extremely serious because
Options:
A) Large tracts of forest absorb CO2, reducing the treatment of global warming B) It will lead to a
server reduction in biological diversity C) Tropical soils cannot support agriculture for long D) All of
the above are correct
Q77) The dominant species in mangrove forests is/are
Options:
A) Rhizophora B) Avicennia C) Both A and B D) None of these
Q78) The human population first began to grow exponentially at the time of the
Options:
A) Agricultural revolution B) First World War C) Tool-using revolution D) Industrial revolution
Q79) Lead (Pb) causes
Options:
A) Radioactive pollution B) Soil and water pollution C) Air pollution D) All of the above
Q80) Cryopreservation involves storage of cells from embryos and shoot tips in liquid nitrogen at
Options:
A) 0^0C B) 5^0c C) -196^0 C D) 100^0C
Q81) Acid deposition causes
Options:
A) The greenhouse effect to lessen B) Lakes and forests to die C) Acid indigestion in humans D) All of
the above are correct
Q82) Peak concentration of ozone occurs in the atmosphere above a height of
Options:
A) 25 km B) 100 km C) 10 km D) 150 km
Q83) In India, sacred forests are located in
Options:
A) Karnataka B) Kerala and Meghalaya C) Maharashtra D) All of the above
Q84) Water pollution can be stopped best by
Options:
A) Spraying DDT B) Treating effluents to remove injurious chemicals C) Cultivating useful water plants
D) Rearing more fishes
Q85) The growth of human population is most rapid in the
Options:
A) Temperate regions B) Asia C) North America D) Tropical and subtropical regions
Q86) Which of the following is the most stable ecosystem?
Options:
A) Ocean B) Desert C) Forest D) Mountain
Q87) Benzene is
Options:
A) Gaseous pollutant B) Liquid pollutant C) Solid pollutant D) All of the above
Q88) Grazing is an example is
Options:
A) Positive pollution B) Negative pollution C) Gully erosion D) Sheet erosion
Q89) Which of the following is mismatched?
Options:
A) Biomass burning-CO2 given off B) Fossil fuel burning-CO2 given off C) Solar energy-greenhouse
effect D) Nuclear power-radioactive wastes
Q90) In which of the following plants are Rhizobium bacteria involved in fixing atmospheric nitrogen?
Options:
A) Tomato B) Rice C) Bean D) Potato
Q91) PAN' stands for
Options:
A) Principle of Advanced Nations B) Presume Additional Noise C) Peroxy Acetyl Nitrate D) Prime
Added Nature
Q92) The burning of fossil fuels includes
Options:
A) Coal B) Oil C) Gas D) All of these
Q93) Taj Mahal is threatened due to the effect of
Options:
A) Hydrogen B) Chlorine C) Sulphur dioxide D) Oxygen
Q94) The process of laterization results into
Options:
A) Mineralization of humus B) Degradation of soil C) Formation of soil D) Formation of humus
Q95) Water pollution is caused by
Options:
A) Hydrocarbon gases and growth of phytoplanktons B) Industrial effluents C) Rain D) Decay of
aquatic animals bodies
Q96) Thermal pollution of water body is due to
Options:
A) Discharge of agricultural runoff B) Discharge of chemical from industries C) Discharge of chemicals
from mining D) Discharge of heat(hot water) from power plants
Q97) Any substance which causes pollution is called
Options:
A) Infection B) Pollutant C) Co-factor D) Inhibitor
Q98) Cryopreservation is the storage of material at ultra-low temperature
Options:
A) By very rapid cooling B) By gradual cooling C) By gradual cooling and simultaneous dehydration at
low temperature D) By all of the above
Q99) Water is a renewable resource, and
Options:
A) It is still subject to pollution B) There will always be a plentiful supply C) Primary sewage treatment
plants assure clean drinking water D) The oceans can never become polluted
Q100) What percent of ultraviolet radiation increase with subsequent reduction of 1% ozone?
Options:
A) 2% B) 8% C) 18% D) 28%
Q101) Which of the following is not correctly matched? (i) The water (Prevention and Control of
Pollution) Act, 1975 (ii) The Motor Vehicle Act came into force from 1st July, 1989 (iii) The Air
(Prevention and Control) Pollution Act, 1981 (iv) The Environment Protection Act, 1983
Options:
A) I and IV B) Only III C) Only II D) All of the above are incorrectly matched
Q102) Which of the following is/are the source(s) of air pollution?
Options:
A) Thermal power stations B) Industrial chimney wastes C) Automobiles D) All of the above
Q103) Continuous sewage flow into a stream would lead to
Options:
A) Algal bloom B) Eutrophication C) Increase in temperature D) Depletion of O2
Q104) About how much of the chemical energy within producer tissues becomes chemical energy
within herbivore tissues?
Options:
A) 10% B) 1% C) 30% D) 50%
Q105) When huge amount of sewage is dumped into a river, the biological oxygen demand will
Options:
A) Decrease B) Increase C) Remain unchanged D) Slightly decrease
Answers:
Q1) D, Q2) C, Q3) D, Q4) A, Q5) D, Q6) C, Q7) B, Q8) C, Q9) C, Q10) D, Q11) D, Q12) D, Q13) D,
Q14) C, Q15) B, Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) B, Q19) C, Q20) D, Q21) B, Q22) B, Q23) C, Q24) C, Q25)
D, Q26) A, Q27) B, Q28) D, Q29) C, Q30) B, Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) D, Q35) C, Q36) D,
Q37) D, Q38) A, Q39) A, Q40) A, Q41) A, Q42) C, Q43) B, Q44) D, Q45) C, Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48)
D, Q49) D, Q50) D, Q51) D, Q52) A, Q53) A, Q54) C, Q55) A, Q56) A, Q57) D, Q58) D, Q59) D,
Q60) B, Q61) A, Q62) D, Q63) C, Q64) C, Q65) D, Q66) C, Q67) D, Q68) D, Q69) A, Q70) D, Q71)
D, Q72) C, Q73) B, Q74) B, Q75) B, Q76) D, Q77) C, Q78) A, Q79) C, Q80) C, Q81) B, Q82) A,
Q83) D, Q84) B, Q85) D, Q86) A, Q87) B, Q88) B, Q89) C, Q90) C, Q91) C, Q92) D, Q93) C, Q94)
B, Q95) B, Q96) D, Q97) B, Q98) D, Q99) A, Q100) A, Q101) A, Q102) D, Q103) D, Q104) C, Q105)
B