HIGHER EDUCATION SYSTEM

HIGHER EDUCATION GOVERNANCE, POLITY AND ADMINISTRATION

I. Basics of Indian Constitution
1. Introduction: The Constitution of India is the supreme law of India. It lays down the framework
defining fundamental political principles, establishes the structure, procedures, powers, and duties of
government institutions, and sets out fundamental rights, directive principles, and the duties of citizens. It
is the longest written constitution of any sovereign country in the world, containing 448 articles in 25
parts, 12 schedules and 97 amendments. Besides the English version, there is an official Hindi translation.
The Constitution of a country sets out the fundamental canons of governance to be followed in that country
and also delineates the division of power, privileges and responsibilities between different organs of
government. The Indian Constitution, prepared after hectic deliberations by the Constituent Assembly, is
possibly the lengthiest document of its kind in the world and has far more detailed provisions than any
other comparable document. The tradition of having a written constitution started with the USA, which
had adopted the first-ever written constitution in the world, after the end of the Civil War there in 1776.
Much water has flown down the Ganges since. Still, England does not have a written constitution till date.
The British judiciary and other parts of the polity work on the basis of conventions that have been evolved
after centuries of collective experience.
The Indian Constitution is the outcome of the debate, deliberations and research of a sovereign Constituent
Assembly. Various Subject Committees like the Committee On Fundamental Rights and Union
Constitution Committee had submitted their respective proposals and after a general discussion on all the
proposals, a Drafting Committee chaired by Dr. BR Ambedkar was appointed. The Drafting Committee
had the full authority to add, modify or delete any of the proposals submitted by the committees. The
finalized draft of he Indian Constitution got the signature of the President of the Constituent Assembly,
Dr. Rajender Prasad on Nov 26, 1949, which is referred to as the Date of Passing. Since the Constituent
Assembly, which finalized the Constitution was duly elected by means of indirect election by the people
of India, The Constitution of India derives its authority from the people of India. The Constitution was
thus enacted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949, and came into effect on 26 January
1950. The date 26 January was chosen to commemorate the Purna Swaraj declaration of independence of
1930. With its adoption, the Union of India officially became the modern and contemporary Republic of
India and it replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as the country's fundamental governing document.
The Indian Constitution has borrowed heavily from other constitutions of the world and can be called a
“beautiful patchwork”. India could not have afforded to experiment with something entirely new at a
crucial juncture in its history. So the founding fathers of the Indian Constitution preferred to rely on the
time-tested value of experience elsewhere and adopted those provisions which had proved to be successful
and workable in other countries. Some of the prominent features which have been borrowed are as under.
Feature Source / Inspiration
1. Fundamental Rights USA
2. The Parliamentary System of Government UK
3. Directive Principles of State Policy Ireland (Eire)
4. Emergency Provisions Germany (Third Reich)
5. Amendment Procedure South Africa
6. Preamble To The Constitution of India France
7. Federal Model of Governance Canada
2. Salient Features of Constitution:
1. It is the longest written constitution in the world.
2. It proclaims India a Sovereign Democratic Republic.
3. Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to all citizens of India.
4. Directive Principles of State Policy are incorporated.
5. It established the parliamentary system of government, i.e., the President of the Union is the
constitutional head, the Council of Ministers or the Union Cabinet is the real executive and is responsible
to the Lok Sabha.
6. It is federal in form (in normal times) but unitary in spirit (in emergencies).
7. It is neither too rigid (as some provisions can be amended by a simple majority) nor flexible (as some
provisions require special majority for amendment).
8. It declares India a secular state.
9. It guarantees single citizenship to all citizens.
10. It introduced adult franchise, i.e., every adult above 18 years has the right to vote and the system of
joint electorates.
11. It established an independent judiciary; the Supreme Court acts as a guardian of the Constitution in
place of the Privy Council.
3. Structure: The Constitution, in its current form, consists of a preamble, 22 parts containing 448 articles,
12 schedules, 2 appendices and 97 amendments to date (latest being related to co-operative societies in
2012).
The Preamble: The draft of the Preamble was prepared by Jawaharlal Nehru and is based on the American
model. The 42nd Amendment added the words ``Secular and Socialist'' and now the preamble reads as
follows.
“We the People of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign Socialist Secular
Democratic Republic and to secure to all its citizens :
Justice; social, economic and political;
Liberty; of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship;
Equality; of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all;
Fraternity; assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation;
In our Constituent Assembly, November 26, 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this
constitution”.
The Preamble is, technically, not a part of the Constitution (and this has been confirmed by the SC also),
but it contains the basic philosophy of the whole Constitution and the ideals of the constitution-makers. It
can be used by the Courts to help them in interpretation of the Constitution in certain matters where the
Constitution itself is silent.
Parts: The individual Articles of the Constitution are grouped together into the following Parts:
Preamble
Part I – Union and its Territory
Part II– Citizenship.
Part III – Fundamental Rights.
Part IV – Directive Principles of State Policy
Part IVA – Fundamental Duties.
Part V – The Union.
Part VI – The States.
Part VII – States in the B part of the First schedule(Repealed).
Part VIII– The Union Territories
Part IX – The Panchayats.
Part IXA – The Municipalities.
Part IXB – The Cooperative Societies
Part X – The scheduled and Tribal Areas
Part XI – Relations between the Union and the States.
Part XII – Finance, Property, Contracts and Suits
Part XIII – Trade and Commerce within the territory of India
Part XIV – Services Under the Union, the States.
Part XIVA – Tribunals.
Part XV – Elections
Part XVI – Special Provisions Relating to certain Classes.
Part XVII – Languages
Part XVIII – Emergency Provisions
Part XIX – Miscellaneous
Part XX – Amendment of the Constitution
Part XXI – Temporary, Transitional and Special Provisions
Part XXII – Short title, date of commencement, Authoritative text in Hindi and Repeals

Part Article Deals with Deals with
Part I Articles 1-4 Territory of India, admission, establishment or formation of new states
Part II Articles 5-11 Citizenship
Part III Articles 12-35 Fundamental Rights
Part IV Articles 36-51 Directive Principles of State Policy
Part IV A Article 51-A Duties of a citizen of India. It was added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976
Part V Articles 52-151 Government at the Union level
Part VI Articles 152-237 Government at the State level
Part VII Article 238
Deals with states in Part B of the First Schedule. It was repealed by 7th
Amendment in 1956
Part VIII Articles 239-241 Administration of Union Territories
Part IX Article 242-243
Territories in Part D of the First Schedule
and other territories. It was repealed by 7th Amendment in 1956
Part X Articles 244-244 A Scheduled and tribal areas
Part XI Articles 245-263 Relations between the Union and States
Part XII Articles 264-300 Finance, property, contracts and suits
Part XIII Articles 301-307
Trade, commerce and travel within the
territory of India
Part XIV Articles 308-323 Services under the Union and States
Added by the 42nd Amendment in 1976
Part XIV-A Articles 323A-323B and deals with administrative tribunals to hear disputes and other
Complaints
Part XV Articles 324-329 Election and Election Commission
Part XVI Articles 330-342
Special provision to certain classes ST/SC
and Anglo Indians
Part XVII Articles 343-351 Official languages
Part XVIII Articles 352-360 Emergency provisions
Part XIX Articles 361-367
Miscellaneous provision regarding exemption of the President and
governors from criminal proceedings
Part XX Article 368 Amendment of Constitution
Part XXI Articles 369-392 Temporary, transitional and special provisions
Part XXII Articles 393-395
Short title, commencement and repeal
of the Constitution
Schedules: Schedules are lists in the Constitution that categorize and tabulate bureaucratic activity and
policy of the Government.
First Schedule (Articles 1 and 4)- This lists the states and territories of India, lists any changes to their
borders and the laws used to make that change.
Second Schedule (Articles 59, 65, 75, 97, 125, 148, 158, 164, 186 and 221)- – This lists the salaries of
officials holding public office, judges, and Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.
Third Schedule (Articles 75, 99, 124, 148, 164, 188 and 219)—Forms of Oaths – This lists the oaths of
offices for elected officials and judges.
Fourth Schedule (Articles 4 and 80) – This details the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (the upper
house of Parliament) per State or Union Territory.
Fifth Schedule (Article 244) – This provides for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and
Scheduled Tribes (areas and tribes needing special protection due to disadvantageous conditions).
Sixth Schedule (Articles 244 and 275) — Provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Seventh Schedule (Article 246)—the union (central government), state, and concurrent lists of
responsibilities.
Eighth Schedule (Articles 344 and 351)—the official languages.
Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) – Originally Articles mentioned here were immune from judicial review
on the ground that they violated fundamental rights. but in a landmark judgment in 2007, the Supreme
Court of India held in I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu and others that laws included in the 9th schedule
can be subject to judicial review if they violated the fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 14, 15,
19, 21 or the basic structure of the Constitution.
Tenth Schedule (Articles 102 and 191)—"Anti-defection" provisions for Members of Parliament and
Members of the State Legislatures.
Eleventh Schedule (Article 243-G)—Panchayat Raj (rural local government)
Twelfth Schedule (Article 243-W)—Municipalities (urban local government).
II. The Federal System & Territory of The Union
1. The Federal System:
Article 1 of the Indian Constitution describes India as a “Union of States”. The term “Union” implies that
I. The Indian federation is not the result of a voluntary agreement by the states themselves. As is well
known, after India’s independence, more than 550 states were integrated into the Union of India by the
then Home Minister, Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel, leading to his being branded as the “Iron Man of India”.
So their inclusion in India is purely involuntary.
II. The components of the Indian Union have no freedom to secede from it. (unlike the erstwhile USSR
or the present-day USA where such freedom was/is vested in the states).
The Indian federal system is unique in the sense that inspite of its being a federal set-up, it still does not
have many features characteristic of a typical federal set-up (like the USA). In general, the Indian set-up
has been mostly described as quasi-federal or semi-federal due to the fact that the balance of power tilts
heavily in favour of the Centre i.e. the states enjoy comparatively lesser powers in most spheres as
compared with the Centre. Some of the noteworthy points of difference, which illustrate the predominant
role of the Centre Vs. States are as follows.
I. The States in India do not have any separate constitution of their own (except Jammu and Kashmir
which has a separate constitution as per the special agreement signed at the time of its accession to India).
They derive their authority from the same Constitution of India.
II. The States are dependent on the Centre for grants-in-aid and plan assistance to meet their development
expenditures. The taxes collected by the States are not wholly appropriated by them, but they are
distributed among the States as per the Finance Commission recommendations.
III. The States do not have any say in the matter of Constitutional amendments (except for a few instances
where their consultation may be obtained by the President or in certain special matters where at least half
of the States must ratify the legislation after being passed by the Parliament))
IV. The Centre can alter, modify or change the boundaries, area or name of any state.
V. There is no separate citizenship of a state (Single citizenship prevails in India whichever state a person
is living in India) unlike the US where every state has a separate citizenship apart from the Union
Citizenship (Double Citizenship).
VI. The President may assume all executive and legislative powers of any state if he is satisfied that the
government of a state cannot be carried out according constitutional provisions (Art. 356)
2. Territory of the Union
The territory of India comprises the entire geographical territory over which the sovereignty of India, for
the time being, prevails. On the other hand, the Union of India includes only those component units, i.e.,
the states, which share power with the Centre. The UTs are centrally administered areas governed by the
President acting through an Administrator appointed by him. As on date, the territory of India consists of
28 states, 6 UTs and 1 National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT- Delhi is neither a full state nor a UT).
India is a federal constitutional republic governed under a parliamentary system consisting of 28 states
and 7 union territories. All states, as well as the union territories of Pondicherry and the National Capital
Territory of Delhi, have elected legislatures and governments, both patterned on the Westminster model.
The remaining five union territories are directly ruled by the centre through appointed administrators. In
1956, under the States Reorganisation Act, states were reorganised on a linguistic basis. Since then, their
structure has remained largely unchanged. Each state or union territory is further divided into
administrative districts.
The state and union territory capitals are sorted according to the administrative, legislative and judicial
capitals. The administrative capital is where the executive government offices are located, the legislative
capital is where the state assembly convenes, and the judicial capital is the location of the state or territorial
High Courts of India.
The States Reorganization Act, 1956 reorganized the boundaries of different Indian States in order to meet
local and linguistic demands. Interestingly, the Union Parliament can by passing a resolution in both
Houses of Parliament.
1. form a new state
2. increase the area of any state
3. diminish the area of any state
4. alter the boundaries of any state
5. or alter the name of any state (Art. 4)
Making use of this provision, several landmark changes have been brought about in the political
composition of the Indian territory, some of which are found in the table below.
ACT/LEGISLATION CHANGE
1. States Reorganization Act, 1956 Andhra, Kerala formed (Andhra-first state on linguistic basis)
2. Bombay Reorganization Act, 1960 Gujarat, Maharashtra born as new states
3. The Panjab Reorganization Act, 1966 Panjab, Haryana and Chandigarh created
4. Mysore State Act, 1973 The name Mysore changed to Karnataka
5. State of Mizoram Act, 1986 Mizoram, earlier a UT, made a State
6. State of Arunachal Pradesh Act, 1986 Arunachal Pradesh elevated to statehood
7. Goa, Daman and Diu Reorganization Act, 1987 Goa made a state
III. Fundamental Rights & Duties, Directive Principles of State Policy
1. Fundamental Rights: The Constitution of India embodies a number (six) of Fundamental Rights in
Part III of the Constitution to act as limitations on the Executive (government) as well as legislative powers
(law-making). Though these rights are modelled on the US pattern, the Indian Constitution makes a
compromise between the principles of Parliamentary Sovereignty and Judicial Supremacy. In the US, the
American President enjoys the power to nullify any decision made by the Federal Court while in the UK,
whatever the Parliament says, is law. The Indian Constitution is a via-media between these two extremes.
These fundamental rights help not only in protection but also the prevention of gross violations of human
rights. They emphasize on the fundamental unity of India by guaranteeing to all citizens the access and
use of the same facilities, irrespective of background. Some fundamental rights apply for persons of any
nationality whereas others are available only to the citizens of India. The right to life and personal liberty
is available to all people and so is the right to freedom of religion. On the other hand, freedoms of speech
and expression and freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country are reserved to citizens alone,
including non-resident Indian citizens. The right to equality in matters of public employment cannot be
conferred to overseas citizens of India.
Fundamental rights primarily protect individuals from any arbitrary state actions, but some rights are
enforceable against individuals. For instance, the Constitution abolishes untouchability and also prohibits
begar. These provisions act as a check both on state action as well as the action of private individuals.
However, these rights are not absolute or uncontrolled and are subject to reasonable restrictions as
necessary for the protection of general welfare. They can also be selectively curtailed. The Supreme Court
has ruled that all provisions of the Constitution, including fundamental rights can be amended. However,
the Parliament cannot alter the basic structure of the constitution. Features such as secularism and
democracy fall under this category. Since the fundamental rights can only be altered by a constitutional
amendment, their inclusion is a check not only on the executive branch, but also on the Parliament and
state legislatures.
A state of national emergency has an adverse effect on these rights. Under such a state, the rights conferred
by Article 19 (freedoms of speech, assembly and movement, etc.) remain suspended. Hence, in such a
situation, the legislature may make laws which go against the rights given in Article 19. Also, the President
may by order suspend the right to move court for the enforcement of other rights as well.
1. Right to equality: Right to equality is an important right provided for in Articles 14, 15, 16, 17
and 18 of the constitution. It is the principal foundation of all other rights and liberties, and
guarantees the following:
Equality before law: Article 14 of the constitution guarantees that all citizens shall be equally protected
by the laws of the country. It means that the State cannot discriminate any of the Indian citizens on the
basis of their caste, creed, colour, sex, gender, religion or place of birth.
Social equality and equal access to public areas: Article 15 of the constitution states that no person shall
be discriminated on the basis of caste, colour, language etc. Every person shall have equal access to public
places like public parks, museums, wells, bathing ghats and temples etc. However, the State may make
any special provision for women and children. Special provisions may be made for the advancements of
any socially or educationally backward class or scheduled castes or scheduled tribes.
Equality in matters of public employment: Article 16 of the constitution lays down that the State cannot
discriminate against anyone in the matters of employment. All citizens can apply for government jobs.
There are some exceptions. The Parliament may enact a law stating that certain jobs can only be filled by
applicants who are domiciled in the area. This may be meant for posts that require knowledge of the
locality and language of the area. The State may also reserve posts for members of backward classes,
scheduled castes or scheduled tribes which are not adequately represented in the services under the State
to bring up the weaker sections of the society. Also, there a law may be passed which requires that the
holder of an office of any religious institution shall also be a person professing that particular religion.
According to the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2003, this right shall not be conferred to Overseas citizens
of India.
Abolition of untouchability: Article 17 of the constitution abolishes the practice of untouchability.
Practice of untouchability is an offense and anyone doing so is punishable by law. The Untouchability
Offences Act of 1955 (renamed to Protection of Civil Rights Act in 1976) provided penalties for preventing
a person from entering a place of worship or from taking water from a tank or well.
Abolition of Titles: Article 18 of the constitution prohibits the State from conferring any titles. Citizens
of India cannot accept titles from a foreign State. The British government had created an aristocratic class
known as Rai Bahadurs and Khan Bahadursin India — these titles were also abolished. However, Military
and academic distinctions can be conferred on the citizens of India. The awards of Bharat Ratna and
Padma Vibhushan cannot be used by the recipient as a title and do not, accordingly, come within the
constitutional prohibition". The Supreme Court, on 15 December 1995, upheld the validity of such awards.
2. Right to freedom: The Constitution of India contains the right to freedom, given in articles 19,
20, 21 and 22, with the view of guaranteeing individual rights that were considered vital by the
framers of the constitution. The right to freedom in Article 19 guarantees the following six
freedoms:
Freedom of speech and expression, which enable an individual to participate in public activities. The
phrase, "freedom of press" has not been used in Article 19, but freedom of expression includes freedom
of press. Reasonable restrictions can be imposed in the interest of public order, security of State, decency
or morality.
Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms, on which the State can impose reasonable restrictions in
the interest of public order and the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Freedom to form associations or unions on which the State can impose reasonable restrictions on this
freedom in the interest of public order, morality and the sovereignty and integrity of India.
Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India though reasonable restrictions can be imposed
on this right in the interest of the general public, for example, restrictions may be imposed on movement
and travelling, so as to control epidemics.
Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India which is also subject to reasonable
restrictions by the State in the interest of the general public or for the protection of the scheduled tribes
because certain safeguards as are envisaged here seem to be justified to protect indigenous and tribal
peoples from exploitation and coercion. Article 370 restricts citizens from other Indian states and Kashmiri
women who marry men from other states from purchasing land or property in Jammu & Kashmir.
Freedom to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation, trade or business on which the State
may impose reasonable restrictions in the interest of the general public. Thus, there is no right to carry on
a business which is dangerous or immoral. Also, professional or technical qualifications may be prescribed
for practicing any profession or carrying on any trade.
The constitution also imposes restrictions on these rights. The government restricts these freedoms in the
interest of the independence, sovereignty and integrity of India. In the interest of morality and public
order, the government can also impose restrictions. However, the right to life and personal liberty cannot
be suspended. The six freedoms are also automatically suspended or have restrictions imposed on them
during a state of emergency.
3. Right against exploitation: The right against exploitation, given in Articles 23 and 24, provides
for two provisions, namely the abolition of trafficking in human beings and Begar (forced labor),
and abolition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in dangerous jobs like factories
and mines. Child labour is considered a gross violation of the spirit and provisions of the
constitution. Begar, practised in the past by landlords, has been declared a crime and is punishable
by law. Trafficking in humans for the purpose of slave trade or prostitution is also prohibited by
law. An exception is made in employment without payment for compulsory services for public
purposes. Compulsory military conscription is covered by this provision. Right to freedom of
religion
4. Right to freedom of Religion, covered in Articles 25, 26, 27 and 28, provides religious freedom
to all citizens of India. The objective of this right is to sustain the principle of secularism in India.
According to the Constitution, all religions are equal before the State and no religion shall be given
preference over the other. Citizens are free to preach, practice and propagate any religion of their
choice.
Religious communities can set up charitable institutions of their own. However, activities in such
institutions which are not religious are performed according to the laws laid down by the government.
Establishing a charitable institution can also be restricted in the interest of public order, morality and
health. No person shall be compelled to pay taxes for the promotion of a particular religion. A State run
institution cannot impart education that is pro-religion. Also, nothing in this article shall affect the
operation of any existing law or prevent the State from making any further law regulating or restricting
any economic, financial, political or other secular activity which may be associated with religious practice,
or providing for social welfare and reform.
5. Cultural and educational rights: As India is a country of many languages, religions, and cultures,
the Constitution provides special measures, in Articles 29 and 30, to protect the rights of the
minorities. Any community which has a language and a script of its own has the right to conserve
and develop it. No citizen can be discriminated against for admission in State or State aided
institutions. All minorities, religious or linguistic, can set up their own educational institutions to
preserve and develop their own culture. In granting aid to institutions, the State cannot discriminate
against any institution on the basis of the fact that it is administered by a minority institution. But
the right to administer does not mean that the State can not interfere in case of maladministration.
In a precedent-setting judgment in 1980, the Supreme Court held that the State can certainly take
regulatory measures to promote the efficiency and excellence of educational standards. It can also
issue guidelines for ensuring the security of the services of the teachers or other employees of the
institution. In another landmark judgement delivered on 31 October 2002, the Supreme Court ruled
that in case of aided minority institutions offering professional courses, admission could only be
through a common entrance test conducted by State or a university. Even an unaided minority
institution ought not to ignore the merit of the students for admission.
6. Right to constitutional remedies: Right to constitutional remedies empowers the citizens to move
a court of law in case of any denial of the fundamental rights. For instance, in case of
imprisonment, the citizen can ask the court to see if it is according to the provisions of the law of
the country. If the court finds that it is not, the person will have to be freed. This procedure of
asking the courts to preserve or safeguard the citizens' fundamental rights can be done in various
ways. The courts can issue various kinds of writs. These writs are habeas corpus, mandamus,
prohibition, quo warranto and certiorari. When a national or state emergency is declared, this
right is suspended by the central government.
Amendments: Changes to the fundamental rights require a constitutional amendment which has to be
passed by a special majority of both houses of Parliament. This means that an amendment requires the
approval of two-thirds of the members present and voting. However, the number of members voting
should not be less than the simple majority of the house — whether the Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.
The right to education at elementary level has been made one of the fundamental rights under the Eighty-
Sixth Amendment of 2002.
Right to property: The Constitution originally provided for the right to property under Articles 19 and
31. Article 19 guaranteed to all citizens the right to acquire, hold and dispose of property. Article 31
provided that "no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law." It also provided that
compensation would be paid to a person whose property has been taken for public purposes.
The provisions relating to the right to property were changed a number of times. The Forty-Forth
Amendment of 1978 deleted the right to property from the list of fundamental rights] A new provision,
Article 300-A, was added to the constitution which provided that "no person shall be deprived of his
property save by authority of law". Thus if a legislature makes a law depriving a person of his property,
there would be no obligation on the part of the State to pay anything as compensation. The aggrieved
person shall have no right to move the court under Article 32. Thus, the right to property is no longer a
fundamental right, though it is still a constitutional right. If the government appears to have acted unfairly,
the action can be challenged in a court of law by citizens.
The liberalisation of the economy and the government's initiative to set up special economic zones has led
to many protests by farmers and have led to calls for the reinstatement of the fundamental right to private
property. The Supreme Court has sent a notice to the government questioning why the right should not be
brought back but in 2010 the court rejected the PIL .As in 2007 the supreme court unanimously said that
the fundamental rights are a basic structure of the constitution and cannot be removed or diluted.
Right to Education: Article 21A - On 1 April 2010, India joined a group of few countries in the world,
with a historic law making education a fundamental right of every child coming into force. Making
elementary education an entitlement for children in the 6-14 age group, the Right of Children to Free and
Compulsory Education Act will directly benefit children who do not go to school at present.
2. Fundamental Duties: The 42nd Amendment Act has introduced a set of 10 Fundamental Duties to be
observed by all the citizens of India. Please note carefully that there is no constitutional provision for
direct enforcement of these duties. The duties are
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
4. To defend the country
5. To promote brotherhood among the Indian people.
6. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
7. To protect and improve the natural environment
8. To develop scientific temper and the spirit of enquiry
9. To safeguard public property
10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
3. Directive Principles of state policy: Contained in Part IV of the Indian Constitution, the directive
principles are basic guidelines for the government to perform certain things and to achieve certain goals
by these actions. Though they are non-justiciable in nature (cannot be enforced in a Court of Law), yet
they are treated as fundamental canons in the governance of the country regardless of the political ideology
of the party in power at the Centre.
Most of these aim at the establishment of the social and economic democracy described in the Preamble
to the Constitution. Some of the more important directives and the extent of the progress made in
implementing them is discussed below.
The directive under Art.39 has made one of the more remarkable progress stories so far as its
implementation is concerned. It enjoins upon the State that it should try to ensure that ownership and
control of material resources of the community are distributed so as to serve common good.
In pursuance of this goal, intermediaries or zamindari has been abolished and land reform laws have been
enacted in many states to ensure that the agricultural land is not monopolized by a few people. Under the
relevant laws, surplus land (beyond the permissible limit, which varies from state to state) is distributed
among the landless labourers. Of course, it is another story that land reforms in India have not been very
successful due to vested political interests and the unwillingness of the landlords to give surplus land to
the government.
The directive in Art. 40 enjoins upon the government to have village panchayats as units of local self
government.
With the 73rd Amendment Act, this has become a reality, wherein all villages in the country are supposed
to have panchayats and regular elections are conducted after every five years. It might be noted that the
village panchayats enjoy both civic and judicial authorities to an extent.
Art. 45 contains a directive to the government to ensure Free Elementary Education upto 14 years of age.
It has been made into a Fundamental Right, with the passage of the 93rd CAA by Parliament.
Art. 47 advises the enactment of prohibition of liquor and intoxicating drinks and drugs. Subsequent to
this, many states have initiated some steps in this direction, but the results so far have not been very
encouraging.
Art. 44 : Enjoins upon the State to have a common set of personal laws ( personal laws deal with topics
Like marriage, divorce, succession etc.) which at the moment are different for different religious
communities.
The issue has been pending for want of sufficient political will.
IV. Procedure for Amendment:
The Indian Constitution is both flexible and rigid and contains many provisions to modify, add, delete or
change it according to the changing needs and circumstances. An easier method has been prescribed for
changing those provisions, which do not primarily affect the federal system. This has been done in two
ways,
1. By providing that the changes in certain constitutional provisions shall not be deemed to be
amendments.
2. Other provisions are changeable by following an amendment procedure described in Art. 368. (Even
this has two categories)
I. A Constitutional Amendment Bill may be initiated in either house of Parliament and can be passed in
each house by following the procedure below:
1. A majority (more than 50%) of the total membership of the House must be present on the day of voting
2. And out of those present and voting, at least two-thirds must vote for the bill.
3. If the above two conditions are fulfilled, the bill is deemed to have been passed in the respective House.
It goes to the other House thereafter, where the same procedure is repeated. Upon passage in both the
Houses in this manner, the bill goes to the President for his assent. The bill becomes an act only after
getting presidential assent.
II. However, if an amendment bill seeks to make any changes to any of the following provisions
namely
A. The manner of Presidential elections.
B. Extent of Executive powers of the Union and the States.
C. The Supreme Courts and High Courts.
D. Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States.
E. Representation of the States in Parliament.
The amendment bill in such cases must be ratified by at least 50% of the State Legislatures before the bill
goes for Presidential assent. The President cannot refuse assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill as is
the provision in case of ordinary bills. Thus the President is not competent to veto any amendment bill
presented to him for assent.
The States in India cannot initiate any bill for constitutional amendment. Notably, the procedure for a
Joint Sitting of the Houses to resolve a deadlock between them in such cases, is not applicable to
amendment bills. In essence, if one house passes an amendment bill and the other house does not, the bill
lapses and will have to be introduced afresh in order to pass it.
As of January 2012, there have been 97 amendments to the Constitution of India since it was first
enacted in 1950. Some of the important amendments are shown below:-
Constitutional PROVISIONS
Amendment Act(CAA)
1st CAA’51 Restrictions imposed on Right to Speech and Expression
24th CAA’71
Education shifted to the Concurrent List, Parliament has the power to
amend
any part of the Constitution
35th CAA’75 Sikkim made an associate State of India
36th CAA’75 Sikkim made a full state of India
42nd CAA’76 Words Socialist, Secular added to the Preamble
DPSPs were given priority over FRs
Fundamental Duties were added
44th CAA’78 Fundamental Right To Property Abolished
61st CAA’89 Voting age lowered from 21 to 18 years
73rd CAA’93 Panchayati Raj (Local Self-Government)
74th CAA’93 Urban Local Bodies
84th CAA’99 Women’s Reservation Bill
93rd CAA’02 Education made a Fundamental Right
97th
 CAA’12
Added the words "or co-operative societies" after the word "or unions" in
Article
19(l)(c) and insertion of article 43B i.e., Promotion of Co-operative
Societies
and added Part-IXB i.e., THE CO-OPERATIVE SOCIETIES
The Basic Features Theory: Until 1971, it was widely thought that since the Indian Constitution does
not contain any mention of the provisions which can be amended under this article or not, any part of the
Constitution was amendable provided it fulfilled the requirements laid down in Art. 368. But in the
legendary Keshvanand Bharati Vs. State of Kerala Case, it was ruled (overruling its own judgment in the
Golak Nath Case) by the SC that though not expressly mentioned, there are certain provisions in the
Constitution, which make up its “basic structure”, and therefore are not changeable at all. This decision
is widely known as the “basic features theory”.
The basic features as spelt out by the SC are:
1. Sovereignty and territorial integrity of India
2. The federal system
3. Judicial Review
4. Parliamentary system of government
Strangely enough, fundamental rights have not been included in this theory. Consequently, in theory at
least, it is competent for the Parliament to change or abolish any or all FRs contained in the Constitution.
Very recently, secularism has been included in this list by the SC in the BJP Ruled States Vs. Union of
India Case.
The above attempt of the SC to assert its authority was nullified by the 42nd AA which aimed at excluding
all kinds of judicial review by the SC. Reacting to this, the SC ruled in the Minerva Mills Case that judicial
review is one of the basic features and that it can not be taken away by any law. Summing up this
complicated scenario, the net position is like this:
1. Any part of the Constitution is amendable according to Art. 368 provided it does not change any
of the “basic features” mentioned above.
2. No Constituent Assembly needs to be convened nor any referendum needs to be conducted to
make any amendment to the Constitution.
V. The Union Executive & The Union Council Of Ministers
1. The Union Executive:
The President and the Vice-President: At the head of the Union Executive stands the President of India,
who is elected by indirect election i.e. by an electoral college, in accordance with the system of
proportional representation by a single transferable vote.
This electoral college comprises -
A. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
B. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
Eligibility Conditions:
In order to contest for Indian Presidency, a person must
1. be a citizen of India
2. have completed 35 years of age
3. be eligible election to the Loksabha
4. not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or any State Government or under
any local or other authority subject to the control of Central/State Governments.
However, the sitting President or the Vice-President, the State Governor and a Minister at the Centre or
in states are eligible to contest for presidential elections. The President is not a member of either House
of Parliament or any State Legislature, and if such a person becomes President, he will be deemed to have
vacated his seat in that House the moment he assumes Presidential office. His office tenure is 5 years from
the date of assuming office, but he will be eligible for re-election. There is no bar on the number of times
for which a person can become the President of India. However, his office may terminate before 5 years
in case of -
1. his resignation in writing which is addressed to the Vice-President of India
2. his removal by impeachment.
Impeachment (Art. 61): Impeachment is a semi-judicial procedure to remove the President of India. The
President of India can be removed from office on one ground only i.e. violation of Constitution. The
parliament may initiate a motion of impeachment in either House, which is then investigated by the other
House.
1. A resolution of impeachment must be moved at least after 14 days of written notice, signed by at least
one-fourths of the total members of that House.3
2. The resolution is then discussed is passed by at least two-thirds of the total membership of the House.
The President has the right to defend himself during such investigations. If, subsequently, a resolution is
passed by at least two-thirds of the total membership of the House in which it originated, it will have the
effect of removing the President from his post with effect from the date of passing.
Emoluments and Allowances: The President gets a monthly salary of Rs. 150000/- only apart from an
official residence for use (free of cost). He is also eligible for an annual pension, if he is not re-elected as
President.
Normally, elections for choosing a new President are held before the expiry of the term of the outgoing
President. Until a new President assumes charge, the outgoing President must continue to discharge his
duties. In case of any vacancy in the President’s office due to death, resignation, impeachment etc., the
elections must be held within 6 months of occurrence of such a vacancy. In such cases, the Vice-President
discharges his duties. Any dispute regarding Presidential election shall be decided by the Supreme Court
of India, whose decision will be exclusive and final in this regard.
Powers, Privileges, Duties: The Constitution says that the all the executive powers of the Union are
vested in the President, making him the Head of the Indian State. Executive functions are those, which are
left after taking out legislative and judicial functions. But these powers are circumscribed by many
provisions like
1. The executive powers are exercisable by the President, in accordance with the advice of his Council of
Ministers (Art 74).
2. However, the President may send back any Cabinet resolution, asking the Cabinet to reconsider it. But
if the resolution again comes back to him for his assent, it is obligatory for him to sign it. The right to send
back any resolution to the Cabinet can be exercised only once. The net result is that the President cannot
act at his discretion or “sweet will” except in certain marginal cases referred to by the Supreme Court.
Different Powers:
A. Administrative Powers: The Indian President remains the formal Head of the Union Administration
and as such, all executive functions of the Union are expressed to be taken in his name. Further, all officers
of the Union shall be subordinate to him and
“He will have a right to be informed of the affairs of the Union”. (Art 78)
Put simply, it means that he can ask for any file/document or information relating to the affairs of the
Union.
The administrative power includes the power to appoint and remove certain high dignitaries of the
State. The President enjoys the power to appoint
1. The Prime Minister
2. Other Central Ministers on PM’s advice
3. The Attorney-General of India
4. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
5. Supreme Court Judges including the CJI
6. High Court Judges including the Chief Justice
7. The Governor of a State
8. The Finance Commission
9. The Union Public Service Commission and Joint Commission for a group of States
10. A special officer for SC/STs
11. A Commission on Scheduled Areas
12. A Commission on Official Languages
13. A special officer for Linguistic Minorities
14. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners
15. A Commission for Backward Classes
He is competent to remove
1. the Union Ministers (on the advice of the PM)
2. the Attorney-General of India
3. the Chairman or a member of the Union Public Service Commission on the report of the Supreme Court.
4. a Supreme Court/High Court Judge/Election Commissioner, on an address of Parliament.
B.Military Powers: The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India and as such,
has the right to declare war or peace with any country. However, such powers are subject to parliamentary
control.
C. Diplomatic Powers: The task of negotiating international treaties and agreements belongs to the
President, who acts according to ministerial advice in such matters. This again is subject to ratification by
the Parliament.
D.Legislative Powers : The President is component part of the Union Parliament (though not a member
of either House) and enjoys the following legislative powers :
1. Summoning, Prorogation, Dissolution: The President has the power to summon (call) or prorogue (end
the session) the Houses of Parliament and to dissolve the Loksabha.
2. He also enjoys the right to call a Joint Sitting of both the Houses to resolve a deadlock over any bill.(
Art 108)
3. He addresses the first session after each general election and at the first session of each year.
4. He can nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons with special achievements/experience
in literature, science, art and social service. Similarly, he has the right to nominate 2 Anglo-Indians to the
Loksabha, if he feels their representation is not sufficient.
It is obligatory to obtain Presidential sanction beforehand in case of certain bills like -
1. a bill for forming a new state/change of state boundaries
2. a money bill
3. a bill affecting taxation in which states are also interested
A Bill becomes an Act only after getting Presidential assent. The President is competent to take any of
the following steps if a Bill is presented to him for his assent:
A. He may give assent to the Bill enabling it to become a law
B. He may withhold his assent
C. He may return the Bill for reconsideration (except Money Bills) to the Parliament. If the Bill is re-
presented to him in this case after reconsideration, it is obligatory for him to give his assent to it.
The above is true of ordinary bills (bills except Money and Amendment Bills).
The President of India cannot refuse to sign a bill. At the most, he can withhold his assent from the bill,
which is the equivalent of not approving a Bill. Also, there is no time-limit prescribed for him to give his
assent to a Bill. Theoretically speaking, he may keep the Bill in his pocket for an indefinite time. An
example in this regard is Mr. Zail Singh’s, who kept the Postal Amendment Bill with him and it lapsed
without his approval once he retired from office. This type of veto power is known as “Pocket Veto”. In
case of sending back the Bill for re-consideration, if the Bill again comes back to him, the only effect of
sending back the bill is suspending the process of assent for some days. This is referred to as “Suspensive
Veto”.
Ordinance-Making Power: The President enjoys the power to issue an ordinance at a time, when the
Parliament is not in session. An ordinance, for all practical purposes, has the effect of a normal law passed
by the Parliament. This power is exercised by him on Cabinet advice. The ordinance issued by the
President must be passed by the Parliament within 6 weeks of reassembly otherwise it will cease to be in
operation. (Art 123)
The Pardoning Powers: He can grant pardon, reprieve, respite, suspension, remission or commutation in
punishment in cases where death sentence is awarded by the Courts (even by a Court-Martial). He is the
only authority for pardoning a death sentence.
Miscellaneous Powers:
1. Power to draw up and notify the lists of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes for each state
separately and UTs.
2. To refer any matter to the Supreme Court for its advice (Art. 143)
Emergency Powers (Part XVIII)
Three types of emergency have been prescribed under the Constitution to deal with exigencies.
The President can -
A. declare a “Proclamation of Emergency” due to threat to the security of India or any part of it. It can be
imposed even in the anticipation of such a threat. The proclamation of emergency must be passed by both
Houses with special majority within one month of its issuance. It can last for six months by passing each
such resolution by the requisite majority.
Because of war, external attack or armed rebellion. (Art.352). An example is the infamous emergency
imposed in 1975 by Mrs. Indira Gandhi. Please note that whenever the word “Emergency” alone is used,
it refers to the National Emergency.
During such an Emergency, the Union can direct the States to perform their Executive functions in the
manner specified by it, thus bringing the States under the complete control of the Union (without
suspending it). During such times, the Parliament will be authorized to make laws in respect of the State
List also (which it normally does not do). Whenever a proclamation of emergency is issued, the rights
granted by Art. 19 are immediately suspended. Any other FR can be suspended depending on a special
presidential order except the Right To Life. But since the emergency order has to be ultimately approved
by the Parliament and it is within its right to disapprove it, the final authority to suspend any FR in India
remains the Indian Parliament.
B. proclaim a state emergency (Art 356) due to breakdown of governmental machinery in any state if he
is satisfied that the government there cannot be carried out according to Constitutional provisions. Such
breakdown may occur due to a political deadlock (as in UP where no government could be formed even
after election owing to a hung assembly) or failure of the state government to comply with directions of
the Union.
In such cases, the President suspends the assembly of that state and rules the state through the Governor,
who is his nominee. That is why this is popularly known as the “President’s Rule”. It has been applied
more than 106 times till date. In such cases, the President may assume to himself any or all of the powers
of the State Legislature. Normally, it is imposed for two months initially, and is to be approved by the
Parliament. This duration can be extended, however, by six months each upto maximum of three years by
passing resolutions in the Parliament.
C. declare a Financial Emergency under Art. 360 if he feels that the creditworthiness of India or any part
of it is in danger. The objective of such an emergency is to maintain financial stability of India by
controlling the expenditures and by reducing the salaries of all government servants. Such an emergency
has never been imposed so far.
3. The Union Council of Ministers: While the Prime Minister is selected by the President, all other
ministers are appointed by him on the advice of the Prime Minister. While selecting a Prime Minister, the
President is restricted to the leader of the majority party at the Centre or the person who is in a position to
form a government and prove is majority later on. The allocation of portfolios to the Ministers is also done
by the President as per the Prime Ministerial advice.
The PM is at the head of the Council of Ministers and the Council cannot continue to exist in the event of
resignation or death of the Prime Minister.
The term Council of Minister refers to all the Ministers, whether Cabinet, State or Deputy Ministers. In
reality, there is no classification of ministers in our Constitution. All this done has been following the
British practice in this regard.
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Loksabha (Art 75). Theoretically, if a no-trust
motion is passed against even one of the ministers in the Parliament, the whole Council is supposed to
resign as a consequence (which has not taken place so far).
The entire Council of Ministers seldom meets as a single body. It is the Cabinet, an inner group within the
Council, which takes all major decisions and which shapes the government policy. While Cabinet
Ministers can attend all Cabinet meetings as a matter of right, the Deputy Ministers and Ministers of State
can come to the meeting only if they are invited.
Ministers may be chosen from either House of Parliament and a minister, who is member of one house,
has a right to speak and participate in the proceedings of the other House, but he cannot vote there. A
person who is not a member of either, can be appointed a minister, but he must get elected to either House
of Parliament within 6 months of his appointment.
VI. The Attorney and Comptroller & Auditor-General of India
1. The Attorney General of India: The Attorney-General of India is the first law officer of the GOI and
he is expected to give advice on legal matters referred to him by the President. He also represents and
defends the cases against the GOI in different Courts. The AGI is possibly the only person under the Indian
system who can take part in the proceedings of the Parliament or any parliamentary committee, but cannot
vote.
The AGI is appointed by the President and holds officer at the latter’s pleasure. A person, in order to be
appointed the AGI, must have the qualifications, which are required of an SC Judge. He receives a monthly
retainer.
2. The Comptroller And Auditor-General: The CAG performs the duties of
1. auditing and reporting on all expenditures from the Consolidated Fund of India and the Contingency
Fund of India and of each state to determine whether the expenditure has been as per law.
2. auditing and reporting on all trading, manufacturing, profit and loss account etc. kept by any
department of the Union or a State.
The CAG report is kept before the Parliament and is examined by the Public Accounts Committee of
Parliament, which brings to the notice of Parliament any discrepancies found by it.
To be appointed by the President, the CAG will have a normal term of office for 6 years or until 65 years
of age, whichever is earlier. However, he may resign any time by writing to the President. Otherwise, the
only grounds and mode for his removal are the same as that of an SC Judge i.e. on impeachment by an
address of Parliament.
3. Public Accounts Committee: This Committee examines the Appropriation Accounts and report of the
Comptroller and Auditor General of India so that the irregularities noticed by the CAG may be discussed
by the House and remedial steps taken. It investigates whether the money is legally distributed for its
intended purpose or not.
VIII. The Union Legislature: Comprises the President, the Loksabha and the Rajyasabha.
1. The Loksabha: Has a mixed composition with a total sanctioned strength of 550 elected members (530
from States and 20 at the most from UTs). A maximum of 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community
may be nominated to the Loksabha by the President if he feels that they are not sufficiently represented.
Members of the Loksabha are elected by an electoral college of all adult citizens (of not less 18 years and
who is not disqualified for non-residence, unsoundness of mind, crime or corrupt or illegal practices-
Universal Adult Franchise –Art. 326). The normal duration of a Loksabha is 5 years, unless dissolved
earlier by the President. The duration can be increased by a maximum of 1 year at a time only during an
Emergency.
2. The Speaker: The Speaker is the person who presides over the Loksabha sittings. Soon after its
formation, the new Loksabha chooses its Speaker and the Deputy Speaker. Since the newly –constituted
Loksabha is yet to elect a Speaker who can administer the oath of office and secrecy to all the new MPs,
the House normally elects a Pro Tem (sort of temporary) Speaker to conduct the business during that time.
The Speaker conducts the business of the House as per the Rules of Business. The Speaker may cease to
be so
1. if he loses the Loksabha membership for some reason
2. if he submits his resignation in writing to the Deputy Speaker and vice-versa.
3. If he is removed from the post by a Loksabha resolution supported by a majority all the members of
the House.
Normally, the Speaker exercises the casting vote in case of a tie over a bill in the House.
Besides, the LS Speaker presides over a Joint Sitting of both the Houses. The Speaker also ratifies a bill
as Money Bill and his decision in this matter is final. During a vacancy in the office of the LS Speaker,
the Deputy Speaker performs his duties. After the first General Elections in 1951, GV Mavlankar became
the first Speaker of the Loksabha.
3. The Rajyasabha: It is a permanent House (cannot be dissolved) with a member having a term of 6
years. One-thirds of its members retire after every two years. Consequently, there will be an election of
one-thirds of the Rajyasabha at the beginning of every 3rd year.
It is the duty of the President to summon both Houses of Parliament at such intervals that not more
than 6 months elapse between two successive sessions.
The Vice-President of India is the ex-office Chairman of the Rajyasabha. During his absence, the
Deputy Chairman discharges his duties in the House.
4. Legislative Procedures
For Bills Other Than Money Bills: May be introduced in either House by a Minister or a private member.
A private member has to seek prior permission of the House before introducing the Bill, which is normally
given. After introduction in the House, the Bill is discussed by the House and is thereafter put to vote. In
case of bills other than Money Bills, a simple majority is required to pass them (at least 50 percent of those
present and voting in the House must approve it.)
After being passed in this manner in one House, Bill goes to the other House. Upon receipt in the other
House, it undergoes all the stages again as it has in the earlier House. The other House may subsequently
1. reject the Bill altogether
2. pass the Bill with amendments. If on return to the originating House, the amendments are accepted by
it, the Bill goes to the President for his assent. However, if the originating House does not agree to the
amendments proposed by the other House, there is a deadlock and the provision of a Joint Sitting may be
applied in such cases.
3. may take no action on it. If more than 6 months elapse in this manner, a Joint Sitting may be summoned
by the President.
Though in most spheres, the LS and the RS are equal in the matter of their rights, there are certain
special privileges enjoyed by the LS and the RS separately. For example,
1. only the Rajyasabha can recommend the creation of one or more All-India Services.
2. Only the Rajyasabha can pass a resolution to enable the Parliament to make a law on any thing
contained in the State List.
Similarly, the Loksabha enjoys certain special powers like the unique ability to introduce a money bill
and its dominant role in passing it.
Money Bills: A Bill is defined as a Money Bill if it contains any of the following provisions ONLY:
A.imposition, abolition, reduction, alteration, remission or regulation of any tax
B.taking out/depositing money from/into the Consolidated Fund/ Contingency Fund of India (Art. 110)
On the other hand, a Financial Bill is a Bill which deals with taxation plus some other provisions. That is
why the Annual Budget is known as the Annual Finance Bill because it contains many provisions apart
from those related to taxes.
A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Loksabha on the recommendations of the President. The
decision of the Speaker of the LS is final in certifying whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not. The
Rajyasabha cannot initiate a Money Bill nor can it reject or amend it after passage by the Loksabha. The
Rajyasabha must return a Money Bill within 14 days of receipt, after which the Loksabha may accept any
of its recommendations. In case the RS recommendations are accepted by the LS, the Bill will be deemed
to have been passed by both the Houses. In case the LS does not accept the RS recommendations, the Bill
will be deemed to have been passed by both the Houses.
If the RS does not return the Bill within 14 days of its receipt, it will be deemed to have been passed.
The net result is that the RS does not have much say in matters of Money or Finance Bills. For example,
in case of Annual Budget, the Rajyasabha can discuss it or propose amendments to it but it is not obligatory
for the LS to accept them.
The President is bound to give his assent to a Money Bill so passed in the first instance itself and
cannot withhold his assent or send it back to Parliament.
In the Loksabha, estimates of expenditures are submitted in the form of Demands-For-Grants on particular
heads and are followed by a vote of the House on each of those heads. After voting, the grants so made
by the LS and the expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (which are non-votable like
the salaries of SC./HC Judges, President’s salary and other office expenses) are included in an
Appropriation Bill, providing legal authority for drawing money from the Consolidated Fund of India.
VIII. The State Executive: Our Constitution provides for a federal set-up and contains provisions for the
administration of the Union and the State governments. The procedure laid down for the governance of
the States is equally applicable to all, except Jammu and Kashmir.
1. The Governor: The State Governor is largely parallel to the Union President in matters of his role in
the legislative and executive process. The Governor, appointed by the President, holds office at the
President’s pleasure and enjoys the formal executive authority in a state. Any Indian Citizen above 35
years of age is eligible for Governorship, but he must not hold any office of profit, nor he be a member of
the Union or a State Legislature. The powers of appointment to the State Council of Ministers, the
Advocate-General, recommending Money- Bills etc. enjoyed by the Governor are largely analogous to
those held by the President at the Centre.
The normal office term of a Governor is 5 years, terminable earlier by resignation to the President
or dismissal by the President.
Salary, Allowances: The Governor gets a monthly salary plus an official residence free of cost and
other allowances and privileges as per law.
2. The State Legislature: Some of the states are unicameral i.e. have got only the State Legislative
Assembly. In some others, apart from it, there is a State Legislative Council e.g. Bihar, Jammu and
Kashmir. The SLC is largely analogous to the Rajyasabha while the State Legislative Assembly is the
equivalent of the Rajyasabha.
3. Special Status of J&K: Under Art. 370, the State of Jammu and Kashmir enjoys certain special
privileges as compared to other States in the Union e.g.
1. J&K has its separate State Constitution which no other state in India has.
2.
No Constitutional Amendment Act passed by the Parliament is applicable to J&K unless it is
extended
so by a Presidential order
3. The President’s rule (Art.356) cannot be applied in J and K.
No proclamation under Art.352 (National Emergency) can be applied to J&K, without the
concurrence
of the State Government.
5.
The Directive Principles of State Policy do not apply to J&K and the Fundamental Right To
Property still exists in the State.
IX. The Indian Judicial System: The Supreme Court of India sits at the apex of the judicial system in
India and the Parliament is competent to make any changes regarding its constitution, jurisdiction and
the
salaries payable to its judges. The Supreme Court comprises a Chief Justice of India and 25 otherJudges.
Besides, the CJI, with presidential consent, can request a retired SC Judge to act as a Temporary Judge
in case of lack of quorum.
Qualifications and Tenures of Judges
A person, in order to be appointed an SC Judge must
1. be a citizen of India
2. Be either a distinguished jurist or have at least 10 years’ High Court practice as an advocate
OR 3. have been a High Court Judge for at least 5 years.
No minimum age nor any fixed tenure has been prescribed. An SC Judge may cease to be so
1. on attaining the age of 65 years
2. by sending his resignation to the President
3. being impeached
The only grounds upon which an SC Judge can be removed are:
A. proven misbehaviour B. incapacity
An SC Judge gets a monthly salary of Rs. 90,000/- plus an official residence free of cost while the CJI
receives a monthly salary of Rs.1,00,000/-, apart from an official residence free of cost. The Constitution
secures the independence of the SC judges by several means, i.e.
1. In matters of appointments to the SC, the President is required to consult, apart from his Council,
the CJI. It has been recently ruled by the SC that consultation here means that the advice so given by the
CJI is binding on the government and it cannot supersede the advice so made by the CJI.
2. They cannot be removed except on a Joint Address by both chambers on specified grounds.
3. That the SC Judges' salaries cannot be changed to their disadvantage during their tenure.
4. That no SC judge shall act or plead in any Court in India after retirement.
Jurisdiction: The SC enjoys an overriding power to entertain appeal, without any limitation upon its
discretion. An appeal to the Supreme Court lies not only from the decision of any lower Courts within
India, but also from the decisions of any tribunal in India.
As A Federal Court: Art 131 gives the Supreme Court exclusive power to decide on disputes between
the Union and the States or between two or more States. Since such a case will always go to the Supreme
Court only, this is known as the original jurisdiction of the SC. Only certain classes of disputes are
excluded from this category i.e. a dispute arising out of interference with inter-state water supplies, matters
referred to the Finance Commission.
As A Court of Appeal: An appeal to the SC always lies if a death sentence has been given to a person
by any of the lower courts/tribunals. But appeals to the SC in civil cases decided by an HC will be
entertained only if the case involves an important question of law and constitutional interpretation and is
certified so by the HC concerned. Of course, the SC enjoys unlimited power of judicial review by
means of its Special Leave Petition, to hear any case arising from any Court / Tribunal within India,
except Military Tribunals.
Advisory Jurisdiction: Under Art. 143, the Supreme Court can give its advice on any matter refereed to
it by the President. However, it is to be noted once a presidential reference is made to the SC on an issue,
it is not bonding on the SC to give its advice nor is it binding on the GOI to accept such advice. A case in
point is the presidential reference to the SC on the Ayodhya dispute. In this case, the SC had declined to
give any advice, saying that it was a purely political question.
As A Guarantor of The Constitution: The Supreme Court is the final interpreter the Constitution and
Other laws. It tries to ensure adherence to both and thus acts a guarantor of individual rights in India
granted by the law and the Constitution.
The high Courts: A High Court stands at the head of the judiciary in each state. But the Parliament has
the power to establish a common High Court for two or more states (like the common HC for the North-
Eastern states). A High Court comprises a Chief Justice and a number of other Judges, as may be decided
by the President.
The HC enjoys the jurisdiction over the territorial limits of the state and has the power of superintendence
and control over all Courts and Tribunals in that area.
In order to be appointed an HC Judge, a person must
1. be an Indian citizen
2. not be above 62 years of age
3. have held a judicial office in India OR
4. have been an advocate of an HC or of two more such courts in succession
In appointing HC Judges, the President shall consult the CJI, the State Governor (and also the CJ of the
State HC in case a judge other than the CJ is to be appointed) an HC Judge holds office till 62 years of
age. However, the Judge may vacate his post-
1. by resignation in writing to the President
2. on appointment as an SC Judge
3. by impeachment in Parliament.
The mode of removal of both SC and HC Judges is the same i.e. impeachment by Parliament and both
hold office during “good behviour”. Both categories of Judges, in addition to a monthly salary, are entitled
to the use of an official residence, free of cost.
X. The Finance Commission: A Finance Commission will be appointed by the President every five
Years (Art. 280) to report on the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States. It
is
the duty of the FC to report on -
1. The allocation of divisible tax resources between the Centre and the States.
2. the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the States’ revenues out of the
Consolidated Fund of India.
3. any other matter referred to the Commission by the President.
XI. The Union and State Public Service Commissions: There is a Union Public Service Commission
to conduct examinations for appointment to Union posts, advise on any matters referred to it by the
President, transfers/promotions and other service matters. The number of the UPSC members is decided
by the President.
The Commission members shall hold office for 6 years from the date of appointment. Sufficient provisions
have been made to guard the independence of the UPSC. For example, a UPSC member can be removed
by the President only on the report of the SC, which will conduct an enquiry into the case. The UPSC
presents an annual report to the government on its functioning and this report is tabled in the parliament.
Please note that the work of the Commission is purely advisory and the government may refuse to
implement the recommendations for appointments made by the UPSC, for which it has give reasons. The
final appointing authority for the All-India Services is the President.
In each state, there is a State Public Service Commission, appointments to which are made by the Governor
concerned. A Joint Commission may also be constituted by the President on the states’ request.
XII. Elections in India: The Indian Constitution does not describe the details of the election process,
it prescribes only essential guidelines, the rest is left to legislation. In India, the general principle of
elections is Universal Adult Franchise i.e. every citizen who is 18+ years of age is entitled to vote for
Loksabha elections regardless of any consideration of caste, color, creed, sex, place of residence and the
like. (provided he has not been disqualified otherwise on grounds of non-residence, crime, unsoundness
of mind, corrupt or illegal practices)
In pursuance of the authority granted by the Constitution, the Representation of People’s Act-1951 and
the Delimitation Commission Act-1962 have been enacted, which describe in detail the electoral process
to be followed in elections and the mode of formation of electoral constituencies. All electoral disputes
connected with LS/RS elections are challengeable only in a High Court by means of an Election Petition,
with an appeal to the Supreme Court while the disputes concerning any Presidential elections can be taken
to the Supreme Court only.
The Constitution provides for an Election Commission consisting of a Chief Election Commissioner and
other Election Commissioners, as may be decided by the President from time to time (Art 324). The
Election Commission is charged with the duty of conducting, supervising and controlling the entire
machinery and the procedure for elections to Parliament, State Legislative Assemblies, offices of President
and Vice-President of India. The CEC cannot be removed from his post except in a manner similar to an
SC Judge i.e. proved misbehaviour/incapacity. The other Commissioners may be removed by the
President on the CEC’s recommendation.
The election process regarding the Loksabha elections is initiated on the recommendations of the Home
Ministry. A specified period is given for filing nomination, which must be supported by at least 10 electors.
A security deposit is also to be given with the Returning Officer of the constituency, which is forfeited if
the candidate fails to get at least one-sixth of total valid votes polled in that election. The results are
declared by the Returning Officer of the constituency concerned. The results can, however, be withheld
by the EC in cases
1. where the constituency has been identified as being communally sensitive
2. the victory margin between two topmost competing candidates is less than 5 percent of valid votes
polled.
Recounting may be ordered in such cases by the EC.
The EC also performs the task of recognizing political parties. Around 43 recognized political parties
exist in India, which may be either of the two types:
1. National parties are those parties, which secure a minimum of 5% total votes in any previous
Loksabha elections OR 5 percent votes in at least 4 State Assembly Elections e.g. the Congress, the BJP.
2. All other parties which do not fulfill the above criteria are classified as regional parties e.g.
Akali Dal, Muslim league, Revolutionary Socialist Party.
Notably, the increase or decrease in the no. of districts in any state has no impact on the number of
Loksabha constituencies which is fixed by the Delimitation Commission. For instance, the current no. of
seats is based on the 1971 Census Report. The number of LS of seats has now been frozen till 2026 in
deference to requests by some states.
XIII. Some Important Political Terms
1. Lame duck Government: Is defined as that government which has lost the motion of no-confidence
in the Lok Sabha and does not have the constitutional authority to run the government. Still on being asked
by the President, such a government has to continue until alternative arrangements are made. Such a
government is referred to as a lame duck government.
2. Left Parties: Are those parties that adopt a radical political ideology. For instance, the CPI, CPI(M)
and RSP etc.
3. Right Parties: Are defined as those parties which adopt a politically conservative ideology e.g. the
BJP, Shiv Sena etc.
4. Centrist Parties: Are those which adopt a political position which is a via media between the leftist
and the rightist political ideologies.
5. Cut Motion: A motion moved to affect a cut in the Annual Budget. If an insignificant cut is proposed,
such a motion is known as a token cut-motion. It has great political significance because if it is carried
through in the Parliament, the government is under moral obligation to resign as a consequence.
6. Zero Hour: That time during parliamentary proceedings in the day when any matter of urgent national
importance without any prior notice.
7. Starred Question: Those the answers to which are given orally by the Minister concerned in the
Parliament.
8. Unstarred Questions: The answers to which are given in writing in Parliament by the Minister
concerned.
9. Vote-On–Account: Is passed without discussions pending final approval by the Parliament if money
is required urgently.
10. Guillotine: A motion is said to be guillotined if it is passed without any discussion on it in parliament
in view of urgency of the issue under question.
11. Filibuster: Is a person who, in order to block the passage of a bill in Parliament, makes a long speech
just before voting is going to take place. This term has British origins. Such a person and such a speech,
both are referred to as filibuster.
12. Whip: A whip is a person who regulates the presence and conduct of the members of a particular
political party in Parliament. He is supposed to ensure their presence and voting on particular days and in
a particular manner. Before voting on any matter in Parliament, an order is issued by the whip to all party
MPs. Such an order is also known as a whip. Under the provisions of the Anti-Defection Law, violating a
party whip can attract disqualification from Parliament. However, as per current provisions, which are
likely to undergo drastic change in future, party splits (i.e. if one-thirds or more legislators from a
particular party leave it and join another one) are not termed as defections and do not attract penal

HIGHER EDUCATION SYSTEM
University and Higher Education System
Higher Education sector has witnessed a tremendous increase in the number of Universities/University
level Institutions & Colleges since Independence. The number of Universities has increased 34 times from
20 in 1950 to 677 in 2014. The sector boasts of 46 Central Universities of which 40 are under the purview
of Ministry of Human Resource Development, 318 State Universities, 185 State Private universities, 129
Deemed to be Universities, 51 Institutions of National Importance (established under Acts of Parliament)
under MHRD (IITs - 16, NITs – 30 and IISERs – 5) and four Institutions (established under various State
legislations). The number of colleges has also registered manifold increase of 74 times with just 500 in
1950 growing to 37,204, as on 31st March, 2013.
The quantum growth in the Higher Education sector is spear-headed by Universities, which are the highest
seats of learning.
In India, "University" means a University established or incorporated by or under a Central Act, a
Provincial Act or a State Act and includes any such institution as may, in consultation with the University
concerned, be recognised by the University Grants Commission (UGC) in accordance with the regulations
made in this regard under the UGC Act, 1956. Every year, millions of students from within the country
and abroad, enter these portals mainly for their graduate, post graduate studies while millions leave these
portals for the world outside.
Higher Education is the shared responsibility of both the Centre and the States. The coordination and
determination of standards in Universities & Colleges is entrusted to the UGC and other statutory
regulatory bodies.
The Central Government provides grants to the UGC and establishes Central Universities/Institutions of
National Importance in the country. The Central Government is also responsible for declaring an
educational institution as "Deemed-to-be University" on the recommendations of the UGC.
At present, the main categories of University/University-level Institutions are :- Central Universities, State
Universities, Deemed-to-be Universities and University-level institutions. These are described as follows:
Central University:
A university established or incorporated by a Central Act.
State University:
A university established or incorporated by a Provincial Act or by a State Act.
Private University:
A university established through a State/Central Act by a sponsoring body viz. A Society registered under
the Societies Registration Act 1860, or any other corresponding law for the time being in force in a State
or a Public Trust or a Company registered under Section 25 of the Companies Act, 1956.
Deemed-To-Be University:
An Institution Deemed to be University, commonly known as Deemed University, refers to a high-
performing institution, which has been so declared by Central Government under Section 3 of the
University Grants Commission (UGC) Act, 1956.
Institution of National Importance:
An Institution established by Act of Parliament and declared as Institution of National Importance.
Institution Under State Legislature Act:
An Institution established or incorporated by a State Legislature Act.
University Grants Commission(UGC)
The University Grants Commission is a statutory organization established by an Act of Parliament in 1956 for the
coordination, determination and maintenance of standards of university education. Apart from providing grants to
eligible universities and colleges, the Commission also advises the Central and State Governments on the measures
which are necessary for the development of Higher Education. It functions from New Delhi as well as its Seven
Regional offices located in Bangalore, Bhopal, Delhi, Guwahati, Hyderabad, Kolkata and Pune.
National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT), New Delhi
NCERT is an organisation set up by the Government of India, with headquarters located at Sri Aurbindo
Marg in New Delhi, to assist and advise the central and state governments on academic matters related to school
education. It was established in 1961.
Inter University Centres (IUCs)
The UGC establishes autonomous Inter-University Centres within the university system under Clause 12(ccc) of
the UGC Act. The objectives for setting up these centres are:
• To provide common advanced centralized facilities/services for universities which are not able to invest
heavily in infrastructure and other inputs.
• To play a vital role in offering the best expertise in each field to teachers and researchers across the
country.
• To provide access for research and teaching community to the state-of-the-art equipment and excellent
library facilities which are comparable to international standards.
The Nuclear Science Centre at New Delhi (now called Inter University Accelerator Centre) was the first research
centre established in 1994. As of today, six Inter University Centres are functioning within the university system,
which are as follows:
• Inter University Accelerator Centre (IUAC), New Delhi
Inter University Accelerator Centre was the first Inter-University Centre to be established by the UGC in
1984. The primary objective of the Centre is to establish within the university system a world class facility
for accelerator-based research. Its aim is to formulate common research programmes of research and
development in collaboration with universities, IITs and other research institutions. It promotes group
activities and human research development in experimental science and other branches of knowledge.
• Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astro-Physics (IUCAA),Pune
Information IUCAA, Pune was set up in 1988 as an autonomous centre of excellence to help initiate and
nurture, research and developmental activities in Astronomy and Astrophysics in the University sector.
IUCAA was set up with the basic purpose of providing advanced centralized facilities for subjects not
adequately covered in the university departments and colleges.
• UGC-DAE Consortium for Scientific Research (UGC-DAECSR),Indore
UGC-DAE was created in the year 1990 with the broad objective of developing competence and
promoting research in front line areas of science and technology in Indian Universities by providing
institutional framework for optimum utilisation of major research facilities established by the department
of Atomic Energy such as Dhruv Reactor of Mumbai, VECC at Kolkata and Synchrotron Radiation
Sources at Indore. The facilities of IUC can be availed by scientists from any university.
• Information and Library Network (INFLIBNET),Ahmedabad, Estd. 1996
An Inter-University Centre of UGC the INFLIBNET serves towards modernization of Libraries, serves as
Information Centre for transfer and access of information, supporting scholarships and learning and
academic pursuits through a National Network of Libraries in around 264 Universities, Colleges and R&D
Institutions across the country.
• Consortium for Educational Communication (CEC), New Delhi
The Consortium for Educational Communication popularly known as CEC is one of the Inter University
Centres set up by the University Grants Commission. It has been established with the goal of addressing
the needs of Higher Education through the use of powerful medium of Television alongwith the
appropriate use of emerging Information Communication Technology (ICT).
Realizing the potential and power of television to act as means of Educational Knowledge dissemination,
UGC started the Countrywide Classroom Programmes in the year 1984. For production of educational
programmes, initially Media Centres were set up at 6 Universities. Subsequently CEC was setup in 1993
as a nodal agency to coordinate, guide & facilitate such educational programme production through its
Media Centres. Today 22 Media Centres now known as Educational Multimedia Research Centres
(EMRCs) are working towards achieving this goal under the umbrella of CEC.
• National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC), Bangalore
National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) was established by the UGC in September 1994
at Bangalore for evaluating the performance of the Universities and Colleges in the Country. NAAC's
mandate includes the task of performance evaluation, assessment and accreditation of universities and
colleges in the country. The philosophy of NAAC is based on objective and continuous improvement
rather than being punitive or judgmental, so that all institutions of higher learning are empowered to
maximize their resources, opportunities and capabilities. Assessment is a performance evaluation of an
institution and /or its units and is accomplished through a process based on self-study and peer review
using defined criteria. Accreditation refers to the certification given by NAAC which is valid for a period
of five years. At present the Assessment and Accreditation by NAAC is done on a voluntary basis.
Inter University Centre for International Studies
Osmania University Campus Hyderabad.
The UGC has established Inter-University Centres (IUCs) for centrally providing state-of-the-art equipment &
facilities for the benefit of researchers working in different universities. So far, these IUCS have been established
mainly in the filed of science and technology. The UGC proposed to establish the first IUC in the field of Humanities
and Social Science by taking over academic and physical infrastructure available at Indo-American Centre for
International Studies.
• Inter University Centre for Teacher Education, Kakinada
List of Central Universities
ARUNACHAL PRADESH
1 Rajiv Gandhi University, Itanagar
ASSAM
2 Assam University, Silchar
3 Tezpur University, Tezpur
BIHAR
4 Central University of South Bihar, Patna
5 Mahatma Gandhi Central University, Patna
6 Nalanda University, Rajgir, Nalanda, Bihar. (established under Central Act)
CHHATTISGARH
7 Guru Ghasidas Vishwavidyalaya, Bilaspur (Converted State University to Central
University).
GUJARAT
8 Central University of Gujarat, Gandhinagar
HARAYANA
9 Central University of Haryana, Mahendragarh,
HIMACHAL PRADESH
10 Central University of Himachal Pradesh, Dist. Kangra
JAMMU & KASHMIR
11 Central of University of Kashmir, Srinagar
12 Central University of Jammu, Jammu
JHARKHAND
13 Central University of Jharkhand, Ranchi
KARNATKA
14 Central University of Karnataka, Gulbarga
KERALA
15 Central University of Kerala, Kasargod
MADHYA PRADESH
16 Dr Harisingh Gour Vishwavidyalaya, Sagar (Converted from State University to
Central University).
17 The Indira Gandhi National Tribal University, Amarkantak
MAHARASHTRA
18 Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalay, Wardha
MANIPUR
19 Central Agricultural University, Imphal
20 Manipur University, Canchipur, Imphal
MEGHALAYA
21 North Eastern Hill University, Shilong
MIZORAM
22 Mizoram University, Aizawal
NAGALAND
23 Nagaland University, Kohima
ODISHA
24 Central University of Orissa, Koraput
PUNJAB
25 Central University of Punjab, Bathinda
RAJASTHAN
26 Central University of Rajasthan, Ajmer
SIKKIM
27 Sikkim University, Tadong, Gangtok.
TAMILNADU
28 Central University of Tamil Nadu, Thiruvarur
29 Indian Maritime University, Chennai
TELANGANA
30 Hyderabad University, Hyderabad
31 Maulana Azad National Urdu University, Hyderabad
32 The English and Foreign Languages University, Osmania University Campus,
Hyderabad
TRIPURA
33 Tripura University, Suryamanianagar, Agartala
UTTAR PRADESH
34 Aligarh Muslim University, Aligarh
35 University of Allahabad, Allahabad
36 Babasaheb Bhimrao Ambedkar University, Lucknow.
37 Banaras Hindu University, Varanasi
38 Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation University, Raebareli
39 Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University, NH-75, Near Pahuj Dam, Gwalier
Road, Jhansi
UTTRAKHAND
40 Hemwati Nandan Bahuguna Garhwal University, Srinagar (Converted from State
University to Central University).
WEST BENGAL
41 Vishwa Bharati, Shantiniketan
NCT OF DELHI
42 Delhi University, Delhi
43 Indira Gandhi National Open University
44 Jamia Millia Islamia, Jamia Nagar
45 Jawaharlal Nehru University
46 South Asian University, JNU Campus, (established under Central Act)
PONDICHERRY
47 Pondicherry University, Pondicherry
Central Universities Which Are Not Under Ministry of HRD (not funded by UGC)
1. SOUTH ASIAN UNIVERSITY
The South Asian University is an International University sponsored by the eight Member States of the South Asian
Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). The eight countries are: Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India,
Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. The formal Agreement to establish the University was signed on April 4,
2007. First academic session of the university started in August 2010 with two post-graduates academic
programmes, one each in Economics and Computer Sciences.
2. NALANDA UNIVERSITY
Nalanda University was established in November 2010. The University came into being by a special Act of the
Indian Parliament – a testimony to the important status that Nalanda University occupies in the Indian intellectual
landscape.
3. CENTRAL AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITY
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), an apex body, which plans, undertakes aids, promotes, and
coordinates agricultural education, research and extension education in India, constituted a research review
committee in 1982 under the National Agricultural Research Project (NARP) to suggest the ways and means to
strengthen the research capability of the NE Region. The committee was also given an additional mandate to look
into the manpower needs of agriculture and allied sectors and suggests the remedial measures.
4. INDIAN MARITIME UNIVERSITY
The Indian Maritime University, came into being through an Act of Parliament (Act 22) on 14th November, 2008
as a Central University and is poised to play a key role in the development of trained human resource for the
maritime sector. November 14th is celebrated as 'IMU Day' every year.
5. RAJIV GANDHI NATIONAL AVIATION UNIVERSITY
Rajiv Gandhi National Aviation University (RGNAU) is an autonomous public central
university located in the Fursatganj Airfield, Amethi district, Uttar Pradesh. It is a specialized
institution and comes directly under the Government of India. It will be financed primarily
by Ministry of Civil Aviation, Ministry of Science and Technology, and collaboration with
International Aerospace and Aviation organizations.
6. INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL OPEN UNIVERSITY
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established in 1985 by an Act of Parliament with the dual
responsibilities of (i) enhancing access and equity to higher education through distance mode and (ii) promoting,
coordinating and determining standards in open learning and distance education systems. Since then, the IGNOU
has undergone rapid expansion and emerged as an international institution in the field of Open and Distance
Learning.
7. RANI LAKSHMI BAI CENTRAL AGRICULTURAL UNIVERSITY
The Rani Lakshmi Bai Central Agricultural University has been established as an Institution of national importance
under Department of Agricultural Research and Education (DARE) by an Act of Parliament (Act No. 10 of 2014)
and notified on 5th March, 2015. This second Central Agricultural University in India established and named in the
memory of great freedom fighter known as warrior queen of Jhansi Late Rani Lakshmi Bai who sacrificed her life
at the altar of the freedom. The objectives of the university are to impart education in different branches of
agriculture and allied sciences, undertake research in agriculture, programmes of extension education and promote
linkages with national and international educational institutes. The University became functional with the joining
of Dr. Arvind Kumar as first Vice-Chancellor on May 9, 2014. The University headquarter is at Jhansi located in
Bundelkhand region covering six districts, namely: Chhatarpur, Damoh, Datia, Panna, Sagar and Tikamgarh of
Madhya Pradesh and seven districts, namely: Banda, Chitrakoot, Hamirpur, Jalaun, Jhansi, Lalitpur and Mahoba of
Uttar Pradesh.
Association of Indian Universities (AIU)
The Association of Indian universities (AIU) is a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 with
membership of Indian Universities. It provides a forum for administrators and academicians of member universities
to exchange views and discuss matters of common concern. It acts as a bureau of information exchange in higher
education and brings out a number of useful publications, including the “Universities Handbook”, research papers
and a weekly journal titled “University News”.
The present membership of the Association is 527 including seven Associate Members viz. Kathmandu University,
Kathmandu, Nepal, Mauritius University, Mauritius, University of Technology, Mauritius, Royal University of
Bhutan, Thimpu, Open University of Malaysia, Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia, Middle East University, UAE, and Semey
State Medical University, Semey, Kazakhstan.
The Association is substantially financed from the annual subscription of the member universities. The Government
of India, Ministry of Human Resource Development provides grants for meeting a part of the maintenance and
development expenditure, including research studies, workshops, training programmes for university
administrators, orientation programmes and creation of Data Bank of Global(of which Universities( the preliminary
document Access to Global Universities is completed). AIU has Evaluation Division, Students Information Service
Division, and Publication Sales Division, Sports Division to sponsor Inter-University Tournaments and World
University Games:2007, Youth Affairs Division, Library and Documentation Division, Finance Division,
Administration Division, Computer Division and Meeting Division.
The AIU is also empowered to grant Associate Membership to universities of the neighbouring countries of India.
Councils
1. Indian Council Of Social Science Research (ICSSR), New Delhi
The Indian Council of Social Science Research (ICSSR) was established in 1969 for promoting social science
research, strengthening different disciplines, improving quality and quantum of research and its utilization in
national policy formulation. To realize these objectives, the ICSSR envisaged development of institutional
infrastructure, identifying research talents, formulating research programmes, supporting professional organizations
and establishing linkages with social scientists in other countries. The ICSSR provides maintenance and
development grants to various Research Institutes and Regional Centres across the country. Regional Centres have
been set-up as extended arms of the ICSSR to support research and development of local talents and its programmes
and activities in a decentralized manner.
Since 1976, the ICSSR has been carrying out surveys of research in different disciplines of social sciences.
With a view to give special emphasis to the promotion of social science research in the North Eastern Region,
initiatives have been taken in the ICSSR to support research proposals and other activities.
2. Indian Council Of Philosophical Research (ICPR), New Delhi
Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) was set up in 1977 by the Ministry of Education, Government
of India as an autonomous organization for the promotion of research in Philosophy and allied discipline. The
ICPR was born out of the conviction that Indian philosophy tradition deserves to have an exclusive and special
agency in the country.
The Council has a broad-based membership comprising of distinguished philosophers, social scientists,
representatives of the University Grants Commission, Indian Council of Social Science Research, Indian Council
of Historic Research, Indian National Science Academy, the Central Government and the Government of Uttar
Pradesh. The Governing Body (GB) and the Research Project Committee (RPC) are the main authorities of the
council. These bodies are vested with well-defined powers and functions.
3. Project Of History Of Indian Science, Philosophy & Culture (PHISPC)
PHISPC was launched in the year 1990 under the aegis of Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) with
the basic objective of undertaking inter-disciplinary study so that inter-connection between Science, Philosophy
and Culture as developed in the long history of Indian civilization, could be brought out in detail. From April 1,
1997, PHISPC was officially de-linked from Indian Council of Philosophical Research (ICPR) for a greater
autonomy to complete the Project by the stipulated period, and is now affiliated to Centre for Studies in Civilizations
(CSC). Government of India has recognized CSC as the nodal agency for the purposes of funding the ongoing
research project, PHISPC.
The major programme of PHISPC is to publish several volumes on the theme mentioned in the 'Introduction'.
4. Indian Council Of Historical Research (ICHR) , New Delhi
Indian Council of Historical Research is an autonomous organization which was established under Societies
Registration Act (Act XXI of 1860) in 1972. The prime objectives of the Council are to give a proper direction to
historical research and to encourage and foster objective and scientific writing of history. The broad aims of the
Council are to bring historians together, provide a forum for exchange of views between them, and give a national
direction to an objective and rational presentation interpretation of history, to sponsor historical research
programmes and projects and to assist institutions and organizations engaged in historical research. It has a broad
view of history so as to include in its fold the history of Science and Technology, Economy, Art, Literature,
Philosophy, Epigraphy, Numismatics, Archaeology, Socio-Economic formation processes and allied subjects
containing strong historical bias and contents.
The ICHR has established two Regional Centres, one at Bangalore and the other at Guwahati with a view to reach
out the far flung areas of the country.
5. National Council of Rural Institutes (NCRI), Hyderabad
The National Council of Rural Institute is a registered autonomous society fully funded by the Central Government.
It was established on October 19, 1995 with its Headquarters at Hyderabad. Its main objectives are to promote rural
higher education on the lines of Mahatma Gandhi’s vision for education so as to take up challenges of micro
planning for transformation of rural areas as envisaged in National Policy on Education (NPE) 1986. In order to
achieve its objectives, the NCRI has been identifying various programmes for providing support and financial
assistance, to be taken up by suitable institutions including voluntary organizations.
Professional Councils
Professional councils are responsible for recognition of courses, promotion of professional
institutions and providing grants to undergraduate programmes and various awards. The statutory
professional councils are:
A. All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE)
B. Medical Council of India (MCI)
C. Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR)
D. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE)
E. Dental Council of India (DCI)
F. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) Indian
G. Nursing Council (INC)
H. Bar Council of India (BCI)
I. Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH) Central
J. Council for Indian Medicine (CCIM)
K. Council of Architecture
L. Distance Education Council (DEC)
M. Rehabilitation Council
N. National Council for Rural Institutes (NCRI)
O. State Councils of Higher Education (SCHE)
A. All India Council of Technical Education (AICTE), Faridabad
All India council for Technical Education has been established under the AICTE Act, 1987. The
council is authorized to take all steps that are considered appropriate for ensuring coordinated and
integrated development of technical education and for maintenance of standards. The Council may,
amongst other things:
i. Coordinate the development of technical education in the country at all levels;
ii. Evolve suitable performance appraisal system for technical institutions and universities
imparting technical education, incorporating norms and mechanisms for enforcing
accountability;
iii. Laydown norms and standards for courses, curricula, physical and instructional facilities, staff
pattern, staff qualifications, quality instruction, assessment and examinations;
iv. Grant approval for starting new technical institutions and for introduction of new course or
programmes in consultation with the agencies concerned.
B. Medical Council of India (MCI), New Delhi
The Medical Council of India (MCI) was set up by the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956, amended
in 1993. The council is empowered to prescribe minimum standards for medical education required
for granting recognized medical qualifications by universities or medical institutions in India.
C. Indian Council for Agricultural Research (ICAR), New Delhi
ICAR has established various research centres in order to meet the agricultural research and
education needs of the country.It is actively pursuing human resource development in the field of
agricultural sciences by setting up numerous agricultural universities spanning the entire country. It
provides funding to nearly 30(Thirty) State Agricultural Universities, one Central University and
several Deemed Universities. These universities employ about 26,000 scientists for teaching,
research and extension education; of these over 6000 scientists are employed in the ICAR supported
coordinated projects.
D. National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), New Delhi
The National Council for Teacher Education is a statutory body set up under the National Council
for Teacher Education Act, 1993 to facilitate planned and coordinated development of the teacher
education system in the country, and for regulation and proper maintenance of norms and standards
in the teacher education system. The mandate given to the NCTE is very broad and covers the
whole gamut of teacher education programs including research and training of persons to equip
them to teach at pre-primary, primary, secondary and senior secondary stages in schools, and
non-formal education, part-time education, adult education and distance (correspondence)
education courses.
E. Dental Council of India (DCI), New Delhi
Dental Council of India, constituted under the Denstists Act, 1948, is a Statutory Body incorporated under
an Act of Parliament to regulate the dental education and the profession of Dentistry throughout India. The
Council is responsible for according recognition to dental degree awarded by various universities and also
for maintaining uniform standards of dental education in India. The Dental Council of India (DCI) lays
down minimum requirements in respect of staff and infrastructure and prescribes the syllabus and the
scheme of examinations.
F. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI), New Delhi
The Pharmacy Council of India (PCI), also known as Central council, was constituted under section
3 of the Pharmacy Act, 1948. The PCI controls pharmacy education and profession in India up to
graduate level. The Council prescribes the minimum standard of education for qualification as
pharmacist.
G. Indian Nursing Council(INC), New Delhi
The Indian Nursing Council is a statutory body constituted under the Indian Nursing Council Act,
1947. The Council is responsible for regulation and maintenance of a uniform standard of training
for Nurses, Midwives, Auxilliary Nurse-Midwives and Health Visitors.
H. Bar Council of India (BCI), New Delhi
The Bar Council of India is empowered to make rules to discharge its functions under the
Advocates Act 1961. An important rule-making power is with reference to laying down guidelines
for the standards of professional conduct and etiquette to be observed by advocates. The Bar
Council of India Rules may prescribe for a class or category of person entitled to be enrolled as
advocate. The Bar Council of India can also specify the conditions subject to which an advocate
must have the right to practise and the circumstances under which a person must be deemed to
practise as an advocate in a court.
I. Central Council of Homeopathy (CCH), New Delhi
The Central Council of Homoeopathy was established under the Homoeopathy Central Council Act, 1973.
The Council prescribes and recognizes all homeopathic medicine qualifications. Any university or medical
institutions that desires to grant a medical qualification in homeopathy is required to apply to the Council.
The Council is responsible for constitution and maintenance of a Central Register of Homoeopathy and for
matters connected therewith. All universities and Board of medical institutions in India are required to
furnish all information regarding courses of study and examination. The Council is empowered to appoint
inspectors at examinations and visitors to examine facilities.
J. Central Council for Indian Medicine (CCIM), New Delhi
The Central Council of Indian Medicine is the statutory body constituted under the Indian Medicine
Central Council Act, 1970. This Council prescribes minimum standards of education in Indian
Systems of Medicine viz. Ayurved, Siddha, Unani Tibb. The Council is responsible to maintain a
Central Register on Indian Medicine and prescribes Standards of Professional Conduct, Etiquette
and Code of Ethics to be observed by the practitioners. The Council is empowered to appoint
medical inspectors to observe the conduct of examinations, and visitors to inspect facilities in
colleges, hospitals and other institutions imparting instruction in Indian medicine.
K. Council of Architecture, New Delhi
The Council of Architecture (COA) was constituted under the provisions of the Architects Act, 1972,
enacted by the Parliament of India. The Act provides for registration of Architects, standards of education,
recognized qualifications and standards of practice to be complied with by the practicing architects. The
Council of Architecture is responsible to regulate the education and practice of profession throughout India
besides maintaining the register of architects. Any person desirous of carrying on the profession of
"Architect" must register himself with Council of Architecture.
L. Distance Education Council, New Delhi
Distance Education Council was constituted under statute 28 arising from Section 25 of the Indira Gandhi
National Open University Act, 1985. The Distance Education Council (DEC) is responsible for the
promotion and coordination of the open university and distance education system and for determination of
its standards. The Council provides academic guidelines to promote excellence, encourage use of
innovative technologies and approaches, enable convergence of all systems and sharing of resources
through collaborative networking for access to sustainable education, skill upgradation and training to all.
M. Rehabilitation Council of India, New Delhi
The Rehabilitation Council of India was set up as a registered society in 1986. However, it was soon found
that a Society could not ensure proper standardization and acceptance of the standards by other
Organizations. The Parliament enacted Rehabilitation Council of India Act in 1992. The Rehabilitation
Council of India become Statutory Body on 22nd June 1993. The RCI Act was amended by the Parliament
in 2000 to work it more broad based. The Act casts onerous responsibility on the Council. It also prescribes
that any one delivering services to people with disability, who does not possess qualifications recognised
by RCI, could be prosecuted. Thus the Council has the twin responsibility of standardizing and regulating
the training of personnel and professional in the field of Rehabilitation and Special Education.
N. National Council for Rural Institutes, Hyderabad
National Council of Rural Institutes is an autonomous society fully funded by the Ministry of HRD, Govt.
of India. Registered on 19th October, 1995 with its Headquarter at Hyderabad, It was established with a
main objective of promoting Rural Higher Education for advancing rural livelihoods with the instrument of
education on the lines of Mahatma Gandhiji's revolutionary concept of Nai Talim, a functional education
based on the values proposed by Gandhiji. Other objectives of the council include teachers training,
extension and research by networking with policy making bodies such as UGC, AICTE and research
organizations like CSIR, AICTE etc., in addition to encouraging other educational institutions and
voluntary agencies to develop in accordance with Gandhian Philosophy of education.
O. State Councils of Higher Education
Following the National Policy on Education, respective state governments have established State Councils
of Higher Education (SCHE). These councils prepare coordinated programmes of development of higher
education in each state. Thus they seek to consolidate the efforts and investments of institutions of higher
education with the state.
a. Andhra Pardesh State Council for Higher
b. Education Tamil Nadu State Council for Higher
Education
c. UP State Council for Higher Education
Other Institutions of Higher Learning
1. Indian Institute of Advanced Study, Shimla
The Indian Institute of Advanced Study (IIAS), Shimla was established in the year 1965, under the
Societies Registration Act 1860 and housed in Rashtrapati Nivas, Shimla. It is a residential center for free
and creative enquiry into the fundamental themes and problems of life and thought. The functions of the
Institute are:
• To promote creative thought in areas which have deep human significance and to provide environment
suitable for academic research and also to undertake, organize, guide and promote advanced research in
Humanities, Social Sciences, Science, Technology and Development; Methodologies and Techniques;
• To provide facilities for advanced consultation, collaboration and exhaustive library and documentation
facilities; including financial assistance for advanced study for teachers and other scholars for specific
period to be determined in each case;
• To organize National Seminars, Lectures, Symposia, Conferences etc;
• To invite Visiting Professors and Visiting Scholars from India and abroad to deliver lectures or conduct
research;
• To start, conduct, print, publish and exhibit any magazines, periodicals, newspapers, books, pamphlets,
monographs or posters that may be considered desirable for the promotion of the object;
• To make arrangements for pooling the results of research, analyzing and adopting them in terms of their
social relevance for the publication;
• To collaborate with other academic or governmental bodies in the dissemination of knowledge; and
• To award Fellowships for conduct of independent research by scholars and researchers.
2. Dr. Zakir Husain Memorial College Trust, New delhi
Dr. Zakir Husain Memorial College Trust, Delhi was established in 1973 to manage and maintain Zakir
Husain College (formerly Delhi College. Prime Minister is the Chairperson of the Trust and Minister of
Human Resource Development is the Vice-Chairperson. Zakir Husain College is one of the constituent
colleges of the University of Delhi. Earlier the college was housed in an old and dilapidated historical
building situated at Ajmeri Gate in the walled city. That campus was more than 300 years old. The college
had the blessings of national leaders such as Late Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the First Prime Minister of
India, and Late Dr. Zakir Husain, Former President of India. The University Grants Commission meets
95% of the recurring grants of the college and the balance 5% is meet by the Dr. Zakir Husain College
Trust. Since the Trust has no resource of its own, grants are provided by the Department of Higher
Education, Ministry of Human Resource Development. Besides, the maintenance expenditure of the
College, the Trust and the University Grants Commission meet on 50:50 percent bases, the cost of the
construction of the new campus, the land of which was allotted by the Ministry of Urban Development.
With the completion of the first phase of the college buildings, the college shifted to its new campus
from the old building at Ajmeri Gate in 1991.
3. Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeethya, New Delhi
Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, New Delhi was established in 1962 and declared
a ‘Deemed to be University’ in 1987.
The Vidyapeetha provides courses of study from Shastri to Vidya Vachaspati (D. Litt.). Since 1997-98,
Vidyapeetha is also offering diploma in Vedic and conducting refresher courses for teachers. It also offers
programmes in faculties namely: Sahitya; Sanskrit; Darshan and Veda Vedanga. These faculties have
eighteen departments viz. Sahitya, Puranetihasa, Prakit, Nyaya Vashaishik, Sankhya Yoga, Advaita
Vedanta, Jain Darshan, Sarva Darshan, Mimamsa, Vishishtadvaita Vedanta, Veda, Dharam Shastra,
Vyakaran, Paurohitya, Jyotish, Shiksha Shastra, and Shikshacharya. The Vidyapeeth also offers P.G.
Diploma in Vastu Shastra and Medical Astrology.
4. Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, Tirupati
Rashtriya Sanskrit Vidyapeetha, Tirupati was established in 1986 with the objective of preserving learning
of Shastras as well as promotion of Sanskrit language, literature, philosophy through teaching and
research. These institutions were declared as ‘Deemed to be University’ in the year 1987. A number of
programmes and activities for realising their objectives in effective manner have been started by both
these institutions. These institutions receive annual grants through the University Grants Commission for
meeting their expenses. The Vidyapeetha provides courses of study in various disciplines ranging from
Prak Shastri (Intermediate) to Vidya Varidhi (Ph.D) and Diploma and Certificate Courses. The
Department Pedagogy of this Vidyapeetha is functioning as an Institute of Advanced Study in Education
(IASE) as a measure to use modern technology. A computer center was established in Vidyapeeth to
accelerate its publication activities. The Vidyapeetha has the following departments: Sahitya, Vyakarana,
Nyaya, Jyotisha, Advaitavedanta, Dvaita Vedanta, Visistadvaita Vedanta, Research and Publication,
Physical Education and Education (IASE).
5. National University Of Education Planning And Administration (NUEPA), New
Delhi
The National University of Educational Planning and Administration (NUEPA) is a Deemed to be
University set up and fully financed by the Department of Higher Education, Ministry of Human Resource
Development. The objectives of the Institute are to undertake, promote and coordinate research in
educational planning and administration, provide training and consultancy services in this field, to train
and orient key level functionaries as well as senior level administrators from the centre and states, to
collaborate with other agencies, institutions and organisations, to provide facilities for training and
research to other countries particularly of the Asian region in the field of educational planning and
administration and to prepare, print and publish papers, periodicals and books, to share experience and
expertise in the area of educational planning and administration with other countries and to conduct
comparative studies for the furtherance of these objectives.
The NUEPA maintains a well stocked Library/Documentation Centre on Educational Planning and
Administration and Inter Disciplinary subjects. It is perhaps one of the richest libraries in the field of
Educational Planning and Management in the Asian Region. It serves the faculty, research scholars and
participants of the various programmes, as also other organisations through Inter Library Loan system.
6. Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan (RSKS), New Delhi
The Rashtriya Sanskrit Sansthan (RSKS) was established on October 15, 1970 as an autonomous
organisation registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860 (Act XXI of 1860) for the development
and promotion of Sanskrit all over the country. It was declared a Deemed to be University in May 2002.
It is fully funded by Government of India. It functions as an apex body for propagation and development
of Sanskrit and assists the Ministry of Human Resource Development in formulating and implementing
various plans and schemes for the development of Sanskrit studies. It has assumed the role of a nodal body
for the effective implementation of various recommendations made by the Sanskrit Commission set up by
the Government of India, Ministry of Education in 1956 to consider the propagation and development of
Sanskrit language and education in all its aspects.
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA)
Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan (RUSA) is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS), launched in 2013
aims at providing strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions. The central funding (in
the ratio of 65:35 for general category States and 90:10 for special category states) would be norm based
and outcome dependent. The funding would flow from the central ministry through the state
governments/union territories to the State Higher Education Councils before reaching the identified
institutions. The funding to states would be made on the basis of critical appraisal of State Higher
Education Plans, which would describe each state’s strategy to address issues of equity, access and
excellence in higher education.
Objectives
The salient objectives of RUSA are to;
• Improve the overall quality of state institutions by ensuring conformity to prescribed norms and
standards and adopt accreditation as a mandatory quality assurance framework.
• Usher transformative reforms in the state higher education system by creating a facilitating institutional
structure for planning and monitoring at the state level, promoting autonomy in State Universities and
improving governance in institutions.
• Ensure reforms in the affiliation, academic and examination systems.
• Ensure adequate availability of quality faculty in all higher educational institutions and ensure capacity
building at all levels of employment.
• Create an enabling atmosphere in the higher educational institutions to devote themselves to research
and innovations.
• Expand the institutional base by creating additional capacity in existing institutions and establishing new
institutions, in order to achieve enrolment targets.
• Correct regional imbalances in access to higher education by setting up institutions in un‐served &
underserved areas.
• Improve equity in higher education by providing adequate opportunities of higher education to SC/STs
and socially and educationally backward classes; promote inclusion of women, minorities, and
differently abled persons.
Components
RUSA would create new universities through upgradation of existing autonomous colleges and conversion
of colleges in a cluster. It would create new model degree colleges, new professional colleges and provide
infrastructural support to universities and colleges Faculty recruitment support, faculty improvements
programmes and leadership development of educational administrators are also an important part of the
scheme. In order to enhance skill development the existing central scheme of Polytechnics has been
subsumed within RUSA. A separate component to synergise vocational education with higher education
has also been included in RUSA. Besides these, RUSA also supports reforming, restructuring and building
capacity of institutions in participating state.
Institutional Hierarchy
RUSA is implemented and monitored through an institutional structure comprising the National Mission
Authority, Project Approval Board and the National Project Directorate at the centre and the State Higher
Education Council and State Project Directorate at the state level.
Open Universities
A. Central Open University
INDIRA GANDHI NATIONAL OPEN UNIVERSITY
Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) was established in 1985 by an Act of Parliament with the dual
responsibilities of (i) enhancing access and equity to higher education through distance mode and (ii) promoting,
coordinating and determining standards in open learning and distance education systems. Since then, the IGNOU
has undergone rapid expansion and emerged as an international institution in the field of Open and Distance
Learning.
B. State Open Universities
1 Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University (BRAOU), Hyderabad, A.P. - (1982)
2 Vardhman Mahaveer Open University (VMOU), Kota, Rajasthan - (1987)
3 Nalanda Open University (NOU). Patna, Bihar - (1987)
4 Yashwantrao Chavan Maharashtra Open University (YCMOU), Nashik, Maharashtra -
(1989)
5 Madhya Pradesh Bhoj Open University (MPBOU), Bhopal, M.P. - (1991)
6 Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar Open University (BAOU), Ahmedabad, Gujarat - (1994)
7 Karnataka State Open University (KSOU), Mysore, Karnataka – (1996)
8 Netaji Subhas Open University (NSOU), Kolkata, W.B. - (1997)
9 U.P. Rajarshi Tandon Open University (UPRTOU), Allahabad, U.P. - (1998)
10 Tamil Nadu Open University (TNOU), Chennai, Tamil Nadu - (2002)
11 Pt. Sunderlal Sharma Open University (PSSOU), Bilaspur, Chhattisgarh - (2005)
12 Uttarakhand Open University, Haldwani, Distt. Nainitall, Uttarakhand
13 Krishna Kanta Handique State Open University, Guwahati, Assam
State-wise List of fake Universities as in September, 2016
Bihar
1. Maithili University/Vishwavidyalaya, Darbhanga, Bihar.
Delhi
2. Varanaseya Sanskrit Vishwavidyalaya, Varanasi (UP) Jagatpuri, Delhi
3. Commercial University Ltd., Daryaganj, Delhi.
4. United Nations University, Delhi.
5. Vocational University, Delhi.
6. ADR-Centric Juridical University, ADR House, 8J, Gopala Tower, 25 Rajendra Place, New Delhi
- 110 008.
7. Indian Institute of Science and Engineering, New Delhi.
Karnataka
8. Badaganvi Sarkar World Open University Education Society, Gokak, Belgaum, Karnataka.
Kerala
9. St. John’s University, Kishanattam, Kerala.
Madhya Pradesh
10. Kesarwani Vidyapith, Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
Maharashtra
11. Raja Arabic University, Nagpur, Maharashtra.
Tamil Nadu
12. D.D.B. Sanskrit University, Trichi, Tamil Nadu.
West Bengal
13. Indian Institute of Alternative Medicine, Kolkatta.
Uttar Pradesh
14. Mahila Gram Vidyapith/Vishwavidyalaya, (Women’s University) Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar
Pradesh.
15. Gandhi Hindi Vidyapith, Prayag, Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh.
16. National University of Electro Complex Homeopathy, Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh.
17. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose University (Open University), Achaltal, Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh.
18. Uttar Pradesh Vishwavidyalaya, Kosi Kalan, Mathura, Uttar Pradesh.
19. Maharana Pratap Shiksha Niketan Vishwavidyalaya, Pratapgarh, Uttar Pradesh.
20. Indraprastha Shiksha Parishad, Institutional Area,Khoda,Makanpur,Noida Phase-II, Uttar Pradesh.
21. Gurukul Vishwavidyala, Vridanvan, Uttar Pradesh.
Odisha
22. Nababharat Shiksha Parishad, Anupoorna Bhawan, Plot No. 242, Pani Tanki Road,Shaktinagar,
Rourkela-769014.
* Bhartiya Shiksha Parishad, Lucknow, UP - the matter is subjudice before the District
Judge – Lucknow
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQs)
Governance, Polity and Administration:
Q1) Collective responsibility is the Hallmark of which form of Government?
Options:
A) parliamentary form B) Presidential form C) Military form D) None of the above
Q2) In case of death, resignation or removal of Governor…..acts as the Governor.
Options:
A) The Chief Minister B) The President of India C) The Speaker D) The Chief Justice of High Court
Q3) The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the
Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) President of India C) Finance Minister D) Lok Sabha
Q4) India is a republic because
Options:
A) Every adult of the age 18 or more has been given the right to vote B) The Constitution guarantees
fundamental rights of the people C) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha D) Head
of State is elected for a fixed term
Q5) Indian Constitution reserves the residuary powers to
Options:
A) The Union B) The States C) The Parliament D) The President
Q6) The most controversial amendment passed during the emergency was?
Options:
A) 43rd B) 41st C) 42nd D) 44th
Q7) In India freedom of press is
Options:
A) Specifically provided in the Constitution B) Implied in the right to freedom of expression C)
Available to the people of India under Law of Parliament D) Available to the people of India under
executive orders
Q8) The subject on which the State Government enjoys exclusive powers are given in
Options:
A) Concurrent List B) State List C) Union List D) Residuary List
Q9) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha and the Raja Sabha is
Options:
A) 525 and 250 respectively B) 550 and 250 C) 535 and 275 D) 500 and 250
Q10) The Contingency Fund of the State is placed under the
Options:
A) Chief Secretary B) Finance Minister C) Chief Minister D) Governor
Q11) .....is the popular House of State Legislature.
Options:
A) Legislative Assembly B) Legislative Council C) Legislative Sabha D) Zilla Council
Q12) How many seats have been reserved for the Union Territories in Lok Sabha?
Options:
A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 50
Q13) The President of India, who has some political differences with Prime Minister was
Options:
A) Zakir Hussain B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad C) Fakrudin Ali Ahmed D) None of the above
Q14) If a Governor wants to resign, to whom does he address his letter of resignation?
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) Home Minister C) Chief Minister D) President of India
Q15) The Legislative Council of a State can be abolished or created by the
Options:
A) President of India on the recommendation of the Parliament B) Legislative Assembly of the State
concerned C) Parliament through a simple legislation D) Parliament on the recommendation of the
Legislative Assembly of the State concerned
Q16) The sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court of India is
Options:
A) 13 B) 15 C) 16 D) 31
Q17) Which of the following is not a Union Territory?
Options:
A) Lakshadweep B) Delhi C) Manipur D) Daman&Diu
Q18) The Governor of a State holds his office only during the pleasure of
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) President C) Chief Minister D) Home Minister
Q19) What does the Article 352 of the Constitution contain?
Options:
A) Provision regarding declaration of Emergency B) Powers of the High Court C) Division of powers
between the Centre and the States D) Powers of the Prime Minister
Q20) A Parliamentary government cannot operate without
Options:
A) A written constitution B) An independent judiciary C) Political parties D) A rigid constitution
Q21) Which one of the following is wrong?
Options:
A) It is the duty of the Chief Minister to keep the Governor informed of all the decisions of the Cabinet
B) The Governor has the Power to ask for any information from the Chief Minister regarding the
administration of the State C) The Governor is the real head of the State administration D) As an agent
of the Central Government the Governor may have to act sometimes independently of the advice of the
Council of Ministers
Q22) The report of the Public Accounts Committee is presented to the
Options:
A) President B) Prime Minister C) Rajya Sabha D) Lok Sabha
Q23) Which of the following is not one of the Fundamental rights?
Options:
A) Right to freedom of Religion B) Right to freedom of through and expression C) Right to equality D)
Right to equal pay for equal work for man as well as women
Q24) The Constitution of India is
Options:
A) Very rigid B) Very flexible C) A combination of rigidity and flexibility D) Neither rigid nor flexible
Q25) Decisions on question about disqualification of members of the Lok Sabha are taken by the
Options:
A) President B) Prime Minister C) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs D) Secretary to Parliament
Q26) The drafting committee of the Indian Constitution was headed by
Options:
A) Dr.Rajendra Prasad B) N.Gopalaswamy C) B.R.Ambedkar D) None of these
Q27) Which of the following statements is correct regarding the procedure of passing of Bills in
Parliament?
Options:
A) A bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse because of the prorogation of the two Houses of
Parliament B) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse
on its dissolution C) A bill pending in the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha not lapse on the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha D) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has been passed by the Lok
Sabha shall not lapse on the adjournment of the Rajya Sabha
Q28) Representatives of Union Territories in Lok Sabha are chosen by
Options:
A) Direct election B) Indirect election C) Nomination D) All the above
Q29) The term of Rajya Sabha members was fixed by the
Options:
A) Constitution B) President C) Parliament D) Cabinet
Q30) The main feature of Presidential government is
Options:
A) Stability B) Irresponsibility C) Check and balances D) Rigidity
Q31) The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State cannot exceed
Options:
A) One-fourth of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly B) One-third of the total
number of members of the Legislative Assembly C) One-sixth of the total members of the Legislative
Assembly D) No such limit has been fixed
Q32) Parliamentary government was adopted in India
Options:
A) By sheer accident B) Because it was made obligatory to adopt this government under Indian
Independence Act of 1947 C) Because of historical considerations and practical necessities D) On
account of all the above reasons
Q33) Which one of the following statements holds good in respect of the Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) One-third of its members retire after every three years B) Two-thirds of its members retire after every
three years C) Two-thirds of its members retire after every two years D) One-third of its members retire
after every two years
Q34) Who was the first President of India to be elected unopposed?
Options:
A) Dr. Radhakrishnan B) N.Sanjiva Reddi C) V.V. Giri D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Q35) The Government in India is known as Parliamentary because
Options:
A) Parliament is elected by the people B) Parliament consists of two houses C) Parliament is a sovereign
body D) The executive is accountable to the Legislature
Q36) The President of India is entitled to a monthly salary of
Options:
A) Rs.1, 50, 000 B) Rs.1, 40, 000 C) Rs. 1, 35, 000 D) Rs.1, 25, 000
Q37) The Governor of a State in India is
Options:
A) Directly elected by the people of the State B) Appointed by the Prime Minister C) Appointed by the
President D) Appointed by the State Chief Minister
Q38) If a Governor wants to resign, to whom does he address his letter of resignation?
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) Chief Minister C) President of India D) Home Minister
Q39) Seats in the Lok Sabha are not reserved for the
Options:
A) Scheduled Castes B) Scheduled Tribes C) Scheduled Tribes in the autonomous district of Assam D)
Anglo Indians
Q40) The Indian Constitution has given a special status to the State of Jammu and Kashmir under
Article
Options:
A) 352 B) 370 C) 368 D) 361
Q41) What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly?
Options:
A) 40 B) 60 C) 50 D) 70
Q42) To be eligible for election as President of India a person must have completed the age of
Options:
A) 35 years B) 40 years C) 30 years D) 25 years
Q43) The Constituent Assembly of India opted for a Parliamentary form of government. Leaders like
Ambedkar, in this, preferred
Options:
A) Stability over responsibility B) Responsibility over stability C) Responsibility and stability D)
People's rule
Q44) Who amongst the following acts as the presiding officer of the House without being its members?
Options:
A) Vice-President of India B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha C) Chairman of the Legislative Council D)
Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
Q45) Which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be abolished any time?
Options:
A) State Legislative Councils B) State Legislative Assemblies C) Rajya Sabha D) Lok Sabha
Q46) The Governor of a State can address the Legislature at the commencement of the
Options:
A) New session after each general election B) First session every year C) Both of the above D) None of
the above
Q47) Which is the most important reason to consider India as a Secular State?
Options:
A) People of different religions live in India B) Government works for the welfare of people of all
religions C) Religion is separated from politics D) Minority religions are given special protection
Q48) The Governor of a State can
Options:
A) Dissolve the Legislative Assembly B) Dissolve the Legislative Council C) Both the above D) None
of the above
Q49) The maximum duration between two sessions of the Indian Parliament should not be more than
Options:
A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) one year
Q50) In Parliamentary Government
Options:
A) The President has the main importance B) The Prime Minister has the main importance C) The Vice-
President has the main importance D) The Head of the State has the main importance
Q51) The Constitution amendment bills are initiated in
Options:
A) The Lok Sabha B) The Rajya Sabha C) Either House D) The Lok Sabha with the prior approval of
the State assemblies
Q52) What is the age of retirement of the Supreme Court Judges?
Options:
A) 60 years B) 65 years C) 62 years D) 70 years
Q53) All the following are Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Indian Constitution except
Options:
A) The right to equality B) The right against exploitation C) The right to adequate means of livelihood
D) The right to freedom of religion
Q54) The Election Commission of a state can be removed from office
Options:
A) Only by the Governor B) In the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme
Court C) Only by the President on the advice of the Chief Justice of the concerned State D) In the same
manner as the Vice-president of India
Q55) Who among the following is considered to be the custodian of the Lok Sabha?
Options:
A) The Prime Minister B) The Leader of the opposition C) The Chief whip of the ruling party D) The
Speaker
Q56) The subordinate courts enjoy
Options:
A) Only civil jurisdiction B) Only criminal jurisdiction C) Only revenue jurisdiction D) All of the above
Q57) A Judge of the Supreme Court of India can be removed from office
Options:
A) By the President of India according to his sweet will B) By the Prime Minister of India C) By the
Chief Justice of India D) By the President on an address by each House of Parliament and supported by
a majority of the total membership of that house and by a majority of not less than 2/3 of the members of
that House present and voting
Q58) Which one of the following Lok Sabha was dissolved before the expiry of its normal term?
Options:
A) First Lok Sabha B) Fourth Lok Sabha C) Sixth Lok Sabha D) None of the above
Q59) If the Vice-President were to submit his resignation, he would notify to
Options:
A) The President of India B) The Prime Minister C) The Chief Justice of India D) The Speaker of the
Lok Sabha
Q60) The number of UTs in the Indian Union is
Options:
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
Q61) Which of the following means the collective responsibility of the Cabinet?
Options:
A) The venue and agenda of the Cabinet meeting are kept secret for security reasons B) It is imperative
for the Prime Minister to consult all the ministers to ascertain their views C) The deliberations of the
Cabinet are kept secret D) The Cabinet functions as a compact unit in justifying its decisions
Q62) The total number of members of the Legislative Council can in no case be less than
Options:
A) 40 B) 60 C) 50 D) No minimum strength has been fixed
Q63) Which one of the following is not a function of the Chief Minister of a State?
Options:
A) He allots business among his colleagues B) He can ask any Minister to resign and in case of his
refusal advise the Governor to dismiss him C) He can dissolve the Legislative Assembly D) He presides
over the meetings of the Cabinet and controls the agenda thereof
Q64) The Presidential Government operates on the principle of
Options:
A) Separation of Powers B) Division of Labour C) Fusion of Labour D) Centralisation of Power
Q65) Cabinet government is based on
Options:
A) Separation of legislature and executive B) Fusion of legislature, executive and judiciary C) Fusion of
legislature and executive D) None of the above
Q66) Which of the following Articles speaks of the appointment of the Governor?
Options:
A) Article 160 B) Article 140 C) Article 255 D) Article 155
Q67) The Constitution of India is
Options:
A) One of the smallest constitutions in the world B) A medium sized constitution C) One of the most
elaborate constitutions of the world D) None of the above
Q68) The Vice-President of India is elected by
Options:
A) The same electoral college which elects the President of India B) The Rajya Sabha C) The Lok Sabha
D) By an electoral college consisting of the members of Houses of Parliament
Q69) A Governor can issue an ordinance
Options:
A) Whenever he likes B) whenever Chief Minister advises him C) Whenever the State Legislature is not
in Session and the Governor is satisfied that immediate action is needed D) When the Union
Government tells him to do so
Q70) In...the executive power of the State Government is vested
Options:
A) The President of India B) The Chief Minister C) The Governor D) The Speaker of the Legislative
Assembly
Q71) Chief Minister is
Options:
A) The Head of the State B) The Head of the Government C) An integral part of the legislature D)
Always a member of the Lower House
Q72) Which of the following was the permanent Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
Options:
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) Pt.Jawahar Lal Nehru C) Sardar Patel D) B.R.Ambedkar
Q73) Consider the following statements: The Fundamental duties- 1. Have always been a part of the
constitution of India 2. Have been added through an amendment 3. Are applicable to all citizens of India
Which of these statements is/are correct?
Options:
A) 1 and 3 B) 1 only C) 2 only D) 2 and 3
Q74) The grant of franchise to women on equal terms with men is assertion of the principle of
Options:
A) Political equality B) Civil equality C) Natural equality D) Social equality
Q75) Prime Minister of India is
Options:
A) Leader of the Rajya Sabha B) Leader of the Lok Sabha C) Leader of the masses D) None of the
above
Q76) Parliamentary Supremacy' is a definite feature of the political system in
Options:
A) U.K B) India C) Canada D) Australia
Q77) The Legislative Council of a State can be abolished or created by
Options:
A) The President of India B) The Legislative Assembly of the State concerned C) By Parliament
according to its will D) By Parliament provided the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to
that effect
Q78) The Union Cabinet is responsible to
Options:
A) The Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha B) The President of India C) The Lok Sabha only D) The
electorate
Q79) The Speaker of a State Assembly can be removed from his office by
Options:
A) A resolution of the Legislative Assembly passed by a majority of all the members of the Assembly
B) The President of India C) The Chief Minister D) The Governor
Q80) The first general election under the Constitution was held in
Options:
A) 1949 B) 1950 C) 1952 D) 1953
Q81) A Governor can be removed by
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) President of India C) Chief Minister D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
Q82) The subordinate Civil Courts are headed by
Options:
A) District Court B) Session Court C) Board of Revenue D) None of these
Q83) The size of the Council of Ministers of a State
Options:
A) Is fixed by the governor in accordance with the High Court’s advice B) Is decided by the Chief
Minister C) Is fixed by the Constitution (91 st Amendment) Act, 2003 D) Is dependent on the total
strength of the assembly
Q84) The right of vote in India is given to all people on the basis of
Options:
A) Age B) Education C) Religion D) Property
Q85) The right to freedom of speech and expression
Options:
A) Does not include freedom of press B) Includes freedom of press C) Includes freedom of press only in
certain respects D) None of the above
Q86) Which one of the following statements is correct?
Options:
A) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha elected by the elected members of the Rajya Sabha B) The
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha president over the joint session of both the Houses of Parliament C) The
electoral college for the election of the Vice-President is the same as that for the election of the President
D) The nominated members of both the House of Parliament have voting right in the election of the
Vice-President but not in the election of the President
Q87) The "Fundamental Duties" of the Indian citizen have been
Options:
A) Originally provided by the constitution B) Included in the constitution by the 44th amendment C)
Included in the constitution by the 42nd amendment D) Inserted into the constitution by a judgement of
the Supreme Court
Q88) The Speaker of Lok Sabha has to address his letter of resignation to the
Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha C) President of India D) Vice-President of
India
Q89) The Rajya Sabha
Options:
A) Is a permanent house B) Has a maximum life of 6 years C) Has a maximum life 5 years D) Has no
fixed life
Q90) The President of India is elected by
Options:
A) Parliament B) State legislatures C) By the people directly D) By an electoral college consisting of the
elected members of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha and the State Legislative Assemblies
Q91) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
Options:
A) The President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of Prime Minister B) Money Bills cannot be
introduced in the Rajya Sabha C) The 42nd Amendment extended the term of the Lok Sabha and the
State Legislative Assemblies from 5 years to 6 years D) As nearly as possible one-third members of the
Rajya Sabha retire on the expiration of every third year
Q92) The vacancy in the office of the President must be filled within
Options:
A) One year B) Six months C) Four months D) Three months
Q93) Which of the following words were added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution under the 42nd
Amendment?
Options:
A) Democratic Republic B) Democratic Socialist C) Socialist Secular D) Sovereign Secular
Q94) The Governor of a state enjoys
Options:
A) No discretionary powers B) Very extensive discretionary powers C) Discretionary Powers in certain
matters D) None of these
Q95) The Governor even though is a constitutional head, he
Options:
A) Is at par with the President B) Is on a different footing from the President C) Is the successor of the
President in the State Administration D) None of the above
Q96) To Which one of the following categories does the Right to Property belong?
Options:
A) Legal Right B) Fundamental Right C) Human Right D) Natural Right
Q97) The Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces of India is
Options:
A) The Defence Minister B) The Prime Minister C) The Chief of the Army Staff D) The President of
India
Q98) The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of
Options:
A) Three years B) Five years C) Six years D) Seven years
Q99) Which one of the following statements correctly describes "a hung Parliament"?
Options:
A) A Parliament in which no party has clear majority B) The Prime Minister has resigned but Parliament
is not dissolved C) The Parliament lacks the quorum to conduct business D) A lame duck Parliament
Q100) The number of Anglo-Indians who can be nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha is
Options:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Q101) The time-gap between two sessions of Parliament must not exceed
Options:
A) 3 months B) 6 months C) 9 months D) one year
Q102) India has
Options:
A) Parliamentary form of government B) Presidential form of government C) Both parliamentary and
presidential forms of government D) None of these
Q103) Which is the largest State in area?
Options:
A) Madhya Pradesh B) Uttar Pradesh C) Maharashtra D) Rajasthan
Q104) When the two Houses of Parliament differ regarding a Bill then the deadlock is resolved by
Options:
A) A joint sitting of the two Houses B) President of India C) Prime Minster of India D) By a special
committee formed for the purpose
Q105) Which of the following exercises power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the
legislative?
Options:
A) Chief Minister B) Governor C) Speaker D) Deputy Speaker
Q106) Who appoints the Governor of a State?
Options:
A) Home Minister of India B) President of India C) Chief Minister of that State D) Prime Minister of
India
Q107) When does a Presidential Ordinance cease to operate?
Options:
A) At the expiry of four-weeks from the reassembly of Parliament or earlier if both Houses disapprove it
B) At the expiry of six-weeks from the reassembly of Parliament or earlier if both Houses disapprove it
C) At the expiry of six-months from the reassembly of Parliament or earlier if both Houses disapprove it
D) None of these
Q108) The President of India is elected by
Options:
A) Direct election B) Indirect election by means of the single transferable vote C) Universal adult
franchise D) All members of the Parliament
Q109) The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is
Options:
A) 500 B) 525 C) 535 D) 550
Q110) Sikkim was made an integral part of India under the
Options:
A) 42nd Amendment B) 40th Amendment C) 39th Amendment D) 36th Amendment
Q111) When a State Government fails to comply with the directions of the Centre in the exercise of
administrative power
Options:
A) The Governor may be directed by the President to dismiss the ministry B) The President can declare
a national emergency and convert the federal structure into a unitary one C) A Constitutional emergency
can be declared in the State and the President can assume all the powers of the State Government D) The
Supreme Court may be asked to intervene
Q112) The Attorney General of India is appointed by
Options:
A) The Chief Justice of India B) The Prime Minister C) The President of India D) The UPSC
Q113) Article 370 of the Indian Constitution deals with
Options:
A) The Emergency Powers of the President B) The special position of the State of Jammu and Kashmir
C) The power to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court on any matter of public importance D)
Distribution of taxes between the Centre and the States
Q114) Chief Minister is not responsible for
Options:
A) Running the entire administration of the State B) The maintenance of the law and order in the State
C) The defence of the State D) None of the above
Q115) How many languages have been recognised by the Constitution?
Options:
A) 13 B) 14 C) 22 D) 16
Q116) Which of the following has not been laid down by the Indian Constitution?
Options:
A) Direct election to the Lok Sabha B) Direct election to the State Legislative Assemblies C) Direct
election of the President of India D) Creation of Supreme Court which is competent to interpret the
Constitution
Q117) The Governor of a State is an integral part of the
Options:
A) State Cabinet B) Parliament C) President's Secretariat D) State Legislature
Q118) How many States are there in the Union of India?
Options:
A) 22 B) 24 C) 26 D) 28
Q119) Which one of the following is not an essential qualification for contesting election to Lok Sabha?
Options:
A) Citizenship of India B) Age of 25 years C) Soundness of mind D) Graduation
Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) D, Q3) B, Q4) D, Q5) A, Q6) C, Q7) B, Q8) B, Q9) B, Q10) D, Q11) A, Q12) A, Q13) B,
Q14) D, Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) C, Q18) B, Q19) A, Q20) C, Q21) C, Q22) D, Q23) D, Q24) C, Q25)
A, Q26) C, Q27) A, Q28) A, Q29) A, Q30) A, Q31) B, Q32) C, Q33) D, Q34) B, Q35) D, Q36) A,
Q37) C, Q38) C, Q39) D, Q40) B, Q41) B, Q42) A, Q43) B, Q44) A, Q45) A, Q46) C, Q47) B, Q48)
A, Q49) B, Q50) B, Q51) C, Q52) B, Q53) C, Q54) B, Q55) D, Q56) D, Q57) D, Q58) C, Q59) A,
Q60) B, Q61) C, Q62) A, Q63) C, Q64) A, Q65) C, Q66) D, Q67) C, Q68) D, Q69) C, Q70) C, Q71)
B, Q72) A, Q73) D, Q74) A, Q75) B, Q76) A, Q77) D, Q78) C, Q79) A, Q80) C, Q81) B, Q82) A,
Q83) C, Q84) A, Q85) B, Q86) D, Q87) C, Q88) B, Q89) A, Q90) D, Q91) D, Q92) B, Q93) C, Q94)
C, Q95) B, Q96) A, Q97) D, Q98) C, Q99) A, Q100) A, Q101) B, Q102) A, Q103) D, Q104) A, Q105)
B, Q106) B, Q107) B, Q108) B, Q109) D, Q110) D, Q111) C, Q112) C, Q113) B, Q114) C, Q115) C,
Q116) C, Q117) D, Q118) D, Q119) D
Higher Education System with Governance, Polity And Administration:
Q1) Match List -I with List -II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List-I (Institutions) a) Central Institute of English b) Gramodaya Vishwavidyalaya c) Central Institute of
Higher Tibetan Studies d) IGNOU
List-II (Locations) i) Chitrakoot and Foreign Languages ii) Hyderabad iii) New Delhi iv) Dharmasala
Options:
A) A − (ii), B − (i), C − (iv), D − (iii) B) A − (iii), B − (iv), C − (ii), D − (i) C) A − (v), B − (iii), C −
(iv), D − (ii) D) A − (iv), B − (ii), C − (iii), D − (v)
Q2) Which statement is not correct about the National Education Day of India?
Options:
A) It is celebrated on 5th September every year. B) It is celebrated on 11th November every year. C) It
is celebrated in the memory of India’s first Union Minister of Education, Dr. Abul alam Azad. D) It is
being celebrated since 2008
Q3) Deemed Universities declared by UGC under Section 3 of the UGC Act 1956, are not permitted to
Options:
A) Offer programmes in higher education and issue degrees. B) give affiliation to any institute of higher
education. C) open off-campus and off-shore campus anywhere in the country and overseas respectively
without the permission of the UGC. D) offer distance education programmes without the approval of the
Distance education Council
Q4) India’s first Defence University is in the State of
Options:
A) Haryana B) Andhra Pradesh C) Uttar Pradesh D) Punjab
Q5) Which of the following institutions in the field of education is set up by the MHRD Government of
India?
Options:
A) Indian council of world Affair, New Delhi B) Mythic Society, Bangalore C) National Bal Bhawan,
New Delhi D) India International Centre, New Delhi
Q6) The University which telecasts interactive educational programmes through its own channel is:
Options:
A) B. R. Ambedkar Open University, Hyderabad B) IGNOU C) University of Pune D) Annamalai
University
Q7) The Government established the University Grants Commission by an Act of Parliament in the
year:
Options:
A) 1980 B) 1948 C) 1950 D) 1956
Q8) Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:
Options:
A) Central Universities B) Deemed Universities C) Residential Universities D) Open Universities
Q9) The University Grants Commission was constituted on the recommendation of:
Options:
A) Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishnan Commission B) Mudaliar Commission C) Sargent Commission D)
Kothari Commission
Q10) Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safeguards the rights of Minorities
to establish and run educational institutions of their own liking?
Options:
A) Article 19 B) Article 29 C) Article 30 D) Article 3
Q11) Foundation training to the newly recruited IAS (Probationers) is imparted by:
Options:
A) Indian Institute of Public Administration B) Administrative Staff College of India C) l. b. s. National
Academy of Administration D) Centre for Advanced Studies
Q12) Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections are settled by:
Options:
A) Election Commission of India B) Joint Committee of Parliament C) Supreme Court of India D)
Central Election Tribunal
Q13) Value education makes a student:
Options:
A) Good citizen B) Successful businessman C) Popular teacher D) Efficient manager
Q14) The head quarter of Mahatma Gandhi Antarrashtriya Hindi Vishwavidyalaya is situated in:
Options:
A) Sevagram B) New Delhi C) Wardha D) Ahmedabad
Q15) The aim of vocationalisation of education is:
Options:
A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge B) converting liberal education into
vocational education C) giving more importance to vocational than general education D) Making liberal
education job-oriented
Q16) NAAC is an autonomous institution under the aegis of:
Options:
A) ICSSR B) CSIR C) AICTE D) UGC
Q17) National Council for Women’s Education was established in:
Options:
A) 1958 B) 1976 C) 1989 D) 2000
Q18) Which one of the following is not situated in New Delhi?
Options:
A) Indian Council of Cultural Relations B) Indian Council of Scientific Research C) National Council of
Educational Research and Training D) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies
Q19) Autonomy in higher education implies freedom in:
Options:
A) Administration B) Policy-making C) Finance D) Curriculum development
Q20) According to Radhakrishnan Commission, the aim of Higher Education is:
Options:
A) To develop the democratic values, peace and harmony B) To develop great personalities who can
give their contributions in politics, administration, industry and commerce C) Both (A) and (B) D) None
of these
Q21) The National Museum at New Delhi is attached to:
Options:
A) Delhi University B) a Deemed University C) a Subordinate Office of the JNU D) Part of Ministry of
Tourism and Culture
Q22) Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately supervised by:
Options:
A) Election Commission of India B) State Election Commission C) District Collector and District
Magistrate D) Concerned Returning Officer
Q23) Which opinion is not correct?
Options:
A) Education is a subject of concurrent list of VII schedule of Constitution of India B) University Grants
Commission is a statutory body C) Patent, inventions, design, copyright and trademarks are the subject
of concurrent list
D) Indian Council of Social Science Research is a statutory body related to research in social sciences
Q24) The Kothari Commission’s report was entitled on:
Options:
A) Education and National Development B) Learning to be adventure C) Diversification of Education
D) Education and socialization in democracy
Q25) Which of the following is not a Dual mode University?
Options:
A) Delhi University B) Bangalore University C) Madras University D) Indira Gandhi National Open
University
Q26) Which part of the Constitution of India is known as ”Code of Administrators??
Options:
A) Part I B) Part II C) Part III D) Part IV
Q27) Which article of the constitution provides safeguards to Naga Customary and their social practices
against any act of Parliament?
Options:
A) Article 371 A B) Article 371 B C) Article 371 C D) Article 263
Q28) Which one of the following is not the tool of good governance?
Options:
A) Right to information B) Citizens’ Charter C) Social Auditing D) Judicial Activist
Q29) The recommendation of National Knowledge Commission for the establishment of 1500
Universities is to
Options:
A) create more teaching jobs B) ensure increase in student enrolment in higher education C) replace or
substitute the privately managed higher education institutions by public institutions D) enable increased
movement of students from rural areas to urban areas
Q30) According to Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business in Parliament shall be
transacted in
Options:
A) English only B) Hindi only C) English and Hindi both D) All the languages included in Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution
Q31) Which of the following is more interactive and student centric?
Options:
A) Seminar B) Workshop C) Lecture D) Group Discussion
Q32) The Parliament in India is composed of
Options:
A) Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha & Vice President C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha
& President D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha with their Secretariats
Q33) The enrolment in higher education in India is contributed both by Formal System of Education and
by System of Distance Education. Distance education contributes
Options:
A) 50% of formal system B) 25% of formal system C) 10% of the formal system D) Distance education
system’s contribution is not taken into account while considering the figures of enrolment in higher
education
Q34) Assertion (A): The UGC Academic Staff Colleges came into existence to improve the quality of
teachers. Reason (R): University and college teachers have to undergo both orientation and refresher
courses.
Options:
A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation. B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R)
is not the correct explanation of (A). C) (A) is correct and (R) is false. D) (A) is false and (R) is correct.
Q35) The accreditation process by National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) differs
from that of National Board of Accreditation (NBA) in terms of
Options:
A) Disciplines covered by both being the same, there is duplication of efforts. B) One has institutional
grading approach and the other has programme grading approach. C) Once get accredited by NBA or
NAAC, the institution is free from renewal of grading, which is not a progressive decision. D) This
accreditation amounts to approval of minimum standards in the quality of education in the institution
concerned.
Q36) Which option is not correct?
Options:
A) Most of the educational institutions of National repute in scientific and technical sphere fall Under
64th entry of Union list. B) Education, in general, is the subject of concurrent list since 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act 1976. C) Central Advisory Board on Education (CABE) was first
established in 1920. D) India had implemented the right to Free and Compulsory Primary Education in
200 through 86th Constitutional Amendment.
Q37) Networking of libraries through electronic media is known as:
Options:
A) Inflibnet B) Libinfnet C) Internet D) HTML
Q38) SITE’ stands for:
Options:
A) System for International technology and Engineering B) Satellite Instructional Television
Experiment C) South Indian Trade Estate D) State Institute of Technology and Engineering
Q39) What is the name of the Research station established by the Indian Government for ’Conducting
Research at Antarctic?
Options:
A) Dakshin Gangotri B) Yamunotri C) Uttara Gangotri D) None of the above
Q40) Ministry of Human Resource Development (HRD) includes:
Options:
A) Department of Elementary Education and Literacy B) Department of Secondary Education and
Literacy C) Department of Women and Child Development D) All the above
Q41) The right to impart and receive information is guaranteed in the Constitution of India by Article:
Options:
A) 19 (2) (a) B) 19(16) C) 19(2) D) 19(1) (a)
Q42) Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
Options:
A) Enriching curriculum based instruction B) Replacing teacher in the long run C) Everybody having
access to a radio set D) Other means of instruction getting outdated
Q43) The first Indian Satellite for serving the educational sector is known as:
Options:
A) SATEDU B) INSAT -B C) EDUSAT D) INSAT-C
Q44) Exclusive educational channel of IGNOU is known as:
Options:
A) GyanDarshan B) Cyan Vani C) DoorDarshan D) Prasar Bharati
Q45) Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution) with List-II (Institutions) and select the correct answer
from the code given below:
List-I(Articles of the Constitution)
a) Article 280
b) Article 324
c) Article 323
d) Article 315
List -II (Institutions)
i) Administrative Tribunals
ii) Election Commission of India
iii) Finance Commission at Union level
iv) Pre Union Public Service Commission
Options:
A) a − (iii), b − (ii), c − (i), d − (iv)
B) a − (ii), b − (iv), c − (i), d − (iii)
C) a − (iii), b − (ii), c − (iv), d − (i)
D) a − (i), b − (iii), c − (ii), d − (iv)
Q46) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-II (Locations) and select the correct answer from the code
given below:
List-I (Institutions)
a) National Law Institute b) Indian Institute of Advanced Studies c) National Judicial Academy d)
National Savings Institute
List-II (Locations)
i) Shimla ii) Bhopal iii) Hyderabad iv) Nagpur
Options:
A) a − (iii), b − (i), c − (ii), d − (iv)
B) a − (ii), b − (iv), c − (i), d − (iii)
C) a − (iii), b − (ii), c − (iv), d − (i)
D) a − (i), b − (iii), c − (ii), d − (iv)
Q47) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-II (Locations) and select the correct answer from the code
given below:
List-I (Institutions)
a) Dr. Hari Singh Gour University b) Send. t. University c) M.S. University d) j. n. Vyas University
List-II (Locations)
i) Mumbai ii) Baroda iii) Jodhpur iv) Sagar
Options:
A) A − (iv), B − (i), C − (ii), D − (iii)
B) A − (ii), B − (iv), C − (i), D − (iii)
C) A − (iv), B − (ii), C − (iv), D − (i)
D) A − (i), B − (iii), C − (v), D − (iv)
Q48) Match List-I (Institutions) with List-II (Functions) and select the correct answer from the code
given below:
List-I (Institutions) a) Parliament b) C & A.G. c) Ministry of Finance d) Executing Departments
List-II (Functions) i) Formulation of Budget ii) Enactment of Budget iii) Implementation of Budget iv)
Legality of expenditure v) Justification of Income
Options:
A) a − (iii), b − (iv), c − (i), d − (iii)
B) a − (iii), b − (iv), c − (ii), d − (i)
C) a − (v), b − (iii), c − (iv), d − (ii)
D) a − (iv), b − (ii), c − (iii), d − (v)
Q49) Most of the Universities in India
Options:
A) conduct teaching and research only B) affiliate colleges and conduct examinations C) conduct
teaching/research and examinations D) promote research only
Q50) Which one of the following is not a Constitutional Body?
Options:
A) Election Commission B) Finance Commission C) Union Public Service Commission D) Planning
Commission
Q51) To make teachers accountable. They should be given
Options:
A) Freedom in the selection of content and methods of teaching B) Training in teaching and examining.
C) Opportunities for professional growth D) Transfer to places where they want to serve.
Q52) Who is the custodian of fundamental rights of people?
Options:
A) Supreme Court B) President C) Prime Minister D) State Assembly
Q53) The social heritage of people could be described by the following term
Options:
A) Culture B) Social norm C) Transmission D) Human involvement
Q54) Which one of the following characteristics could be regarded as the outstanding aspect of a
scientific culture?
Options:
A) Generalization B) Actualization C) Qualification D) Quantification
Q55) In India, education means
Options:
A) The assimilation of tradition in language B) Respectful behaviour to elders & teachers C) Customs
D) All are important
Q56) Which of the following standing committees of Parliament has no MP from Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) Public Accounts Committee B) Estimates Committee C) Committee on Public Undertakings D)
Committee on Government Assurances
Q57) India is a
Options:
A) Secular State B) Bilingual State C) Communist State D) Capitalist State
Q58) The Council of Ministers is responsible to the
Options:
A) President B) Lok Sabha C) Vice-President D) Rajya Sabha
Q59) The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the
Options:
A) Prime Minister of India B) Speaker of the Rajya Sabha C) President of India D) Ministry of Law &
Justice
Q60) Which of the following are the ideals set forth in the Preamble?
Options:
A) Social, economic and political Justice B) Equality of status and of opportunity C) Liberty of thought,
expression, belief, faith and worship D) All of these
Q61) Of which fundamental right is a foreigner in India deprived of?
Options:
A) To seek justice in court B) To seek financial security of life C) To criticize policies of government D)
To vote at the time of ’Parliamentary election
Q62) The Legislative Council of a State is a
Options:
A) temporary body B) permanent body C) semi-permanent body D) chamber of the nominated members
Q63) Which of the following is the federal feature of the Indian Constitution?
Options:
A) There is distribution of Powers in accordance with 2 lists B) Written and rigid constitution C)
Independent Judiciary D) All of these
Q64) The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to
Options:
A) Panchayati Raj Institutions B) Anti-defection Act C) List of languages recognized by the
Constitution D) Procedure for amendment to the Constitution
Q65) Hearing is controlled by
Options:
A) Frontal lobes B) Occipital lobes C) Temporal lobes. D) Parietal lobes
Q66) All the functions of educational measurements are concerned, directly or indirectly with
Options:
A) Avoidance of conflicts B) Selection of teachers C) Facilitation of learning D) Improvement of
administration
Q67) The most accurate statement about teaching machines is that
Options:
A) B F Skinner began the movement for their use B) they were designed as an economy measure to
replace teachers C) they are not as efficient as teachers in reinforcing responses D) they can be used for
all learning programmes
Q68) A culturally disadvantaged child is best served by the school system that
Options:
A) places him/her in a class with other culturally disadvantaged children B) gives him/her an annual
intelligence test C) trains teachers to understand his/her impoverished home back-ground D) assesses
his/her strengths and needs and provide for an individualized learning plan
Q69) All of the following tend to erode local control of education in favour of national control, except
The
Options:
A) National Science Foundation B) National Institute of Mental Health C) College Entrance
Examination Board D) National Defence Education Act
Q70) A student fails a test for which he did not study. By ascribing his failure to the fact that the teacher
does not like him he is utilizing
Options:
A) conversion B) sympathism C) rationalization D) Compensation
Q71) The project method of teaching is best associated with the philosophy of
Options:
A) John Dewey B) Max Rafferty C) Robert Hutchins D) B F Skinner
Q72) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) is situated at
Options:
A) N. Hyderabad B) Bangalore C) Delhi D) Trombay (Mumbai)
Q73) Birla Institute of Technology is situated at
Options:
A) Ranchi B) Jaipur C) Kota D) Hardwar
Q74) Central Forensic Science Laboratory is situated in
Options:
A) Chandigarh B) Patna C) Patiala D) Ludhiana
Q75) In which of the following respects is a theory ’not’ different from a belief?
Options:
A) Antecedent consequent relationships’ B) Acceptability C) Verifiability D) Demonstrability
Q76) According to Swami Vivekananda, teacher’s success depends on
Options:
A) His renunciation of personal gain a” service to others B) His concentration on his work and if with a
spirit of obedience to God C) His professional training and creating D) His mastery of the subject and
task controlling the students
Q77) The Montessori schools insist on
Options:
A) The principle of sense training B) Creativeness, the main objective c education C) Complete
discipline and supervision D) Well equipped school buildings
Q78) It is usually claimed that any subject that is taught in school has a disciplinary value. This means,
that
Options:
A) It requires strict discipline among students to learnt it B) It teaches certain habits and qualities to
train the minds of students C) Every subject is the outcome of the disciplined thinking and experience of
experts D) It requires special and disciplined methods of teaching
Q79) According to Alder, the primary cause for stresses and strains in a individual is
Options:
A) The feeling of inferiority B) The desire for knowledge of the self C) The desire for gratification of
the sex impulse D) The curiosity to know the mind of others
Q80) The Pancha Kosh Theory of Education was elaborated by
Options:
A) Swami Vivekananda B) Patanjali C) Mahatma Gandhi D) Aurobindo
Q81) Which one of the following sets of special powers has been conferred on Rajya Sabha by the
Constitution?
Options:
A) To change the existing territory of a state and to change the name of a state B) To pass a resolution
empowering the parliament to make laws i the State List and creation of one or more All-India services
C) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after
his retirement D) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number
of Election Commissioners
Q82) It is often complained that there is brain drain in our country. The implication is that
Options:
A) The brains of educated persons are having washed in unnecessary pursuits. B) Students brains are
unnecessarily burdened with every education C) Education that is imparted is a string to the brains
average students D) Educated and capable people are seeking jobs in other countries because of
unemployment here
Q83) Historically speaking, Thorndike's theory of learning was translated into class room method
following
Options:
A) Froebel an principles of child education. B) Herbatian steps with only slight modifications. C) John
Looke’s approach to children’s state of mind D) The scientific principles recommended by Rousseau.
Q84) Rousseau who popularized the Naturalistic Philosophy of Education in the West belonged to
Options:
A) The 17th Century B) The 16th Century C) The 15th 16th Centuries D) The 18th Century
Q85) A good piece of research is the product of
Options:
A) A good research library B) Collective scholarship C) A penetrating and analytical mind D) A touch
of genius
Q86) The horizontal enrichment programme of instruction means
Options:
A) Selecting topics of equal difficulty level and presenting them together. B) Grouping children of
similar abilities for teaching advanced knowledge C) Teaching topics in relation to other topics to
suggest self study by students D) Enlisting the co-operation of all talented students to study together
with a competitive spirit
Q87) Appetite and satiety centres of brain an present in
Options:
A) Hypothalamus B) Cerebral hemisphere C) Cerebellum D) Medulla oblongata
Q88) The Indian Education Commission (1964-66) has recommended compulsory social service for
school children as follows
Options:
A) 20 days for the lower secondary stage and 20 days for the higher secondary stage B) 10 days for the
primary stage and 30 days the secondary stage C) 30 days for the lower secondary and 20 days for the
higher secondary stage D) 1 0 days for the lower secondary stage and 20 days for the higher secondary
stage
Q89) Who can amend the Constitution?
Options:
A) President B) Parliament C) Prime Minister D) Union Cabinet
Q90) How many members of the Anglo-Indian community can be nominated to the Lok Sabha by the
President?
Options:
A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 12
Q91) When you put a question in the class to check the knowledge of students, the best method would
be to
Options:
A) Put more than one question at a time to stimulate students B) Frame the question as lengthy as you
can C) To point to intelligent students first and then put the question D) To pose the question to the
whole class and then select somebody to answer
Q92) Research is
Options:
A) Data gathering B) Moving from a broad area to a narrow and focused area C) A systematic process
of finding the truth D) Data gathering, processing and analysis
Q93) If you were reading a series of articles about the teaching of reading, you would expect to be
reading an article by
Options:
A) Paul McKee B) Albert Harris C) Arthur Gates D) Frank Riesman
Q94) Of the following, the author of a widely used intelligence test is
Options:
A) David Wechsler B) B F Skinner C) William Cruiksha D) Bruno Bettelheim
Q95) Indian Institute of Science (IISc) is located in
Options:
A) Chennai B) Kolkata C) Bangalore D) Mumbai
Q96) Indian Institute of Foreign Trade is situated in
Options:
A) Lucknow B) Dehradun C) New Delhi D) Mumbai
Q97) National Institute of Immunology is situated in
Options:
A) Delhi B) Hyderabad C) Goa D) Kochi
Q98) A set of test papers from a class of 29 students has been arranged in order from the highest to the
lowest scores. The mark on the fifteenth paper is known as the
Options:
A) median B) mean C) mode D) norm
Q99) Recreational reading should be
Options:
A) reserved for the school library period B) assigned as homework C) a responsibility of the home, not
the school D) an integral part of the language arts curriculum
Q100) When Jeewan receives his failing test mark, he tells the teacher, ”You don’t like me.” This is an
example of
Options:
A) identification B) transference C) egocentrism D) projection
Q101) Of the following learning theories, the one that embodies the idea that learning takes place
through insight is known as
Options:
A) Gestalt B) stimulus-response C) connectionist D) pragmatic
Q102) Overlearning tends to strengthen an individuals
Options:
A) powers of retention B) endurance C) feeling of boredom D) motivation
Q103) How many Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT) are there in India?
Options:
A) 16 B) 4 C) 6 D) 3
Q104) How many Indian Institutes o Management (IIM) are there in India?
Options:
A) 13 B) 7 C) 5 D) 8
Q105) The theory of learning associated with connectionism was propounded by
Options:
A) Socrates B) Pavlov C) Thorndike D) Kilpatrick
Q106) Evaluation in education insists on the following:
Options:
A) Making tests more reliable and valid B) Conducting periodical tests to detect students’ weaknesses
C) Insisting on clear cut behaviour al objectives of teaching D) Examining students objectively for
selection purpose
Q107) The main purpose of the first degree in our universities should be to
Options:
A) Bring students to frontiers of knowledge and from there should be research B) Equip students with
necessary competencies for different work experiences C) Prepare students for social service and bring
them to the threshold of knowledge D) Bring to the frontiers of research with necessary equipment of
knowledge
Q108) The idea of starting girls’ University in our country started in the year 1970.
Options:
A) As an initiative of the British rulers. B) Through the efforts of municipalities and local fund
communities C) With the opening of the SNDT university at Bombay D) With the political awakening
in the country by the push given by Mahatma Gandhi
Q109) A good communicator needs to be good at
Options:
A) Speaking B) Listening C) The use of language D) The use of humour in speech
Q110) Which controls reflex action?
Options:
A) Sympathetic nervous system B) Central nervous system C) Parasympathetic nervous system D)
Sensory nerves
Q111) The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court are charged on the consolidated fund of India
Because
Options:
A) they may get salaries regularly every month B) their salaries may be free from legislative vote C)
there may not be any cut in their salaries D) their financial position may be secure to enable them to
dispense impartial justice
Q112) A member of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a period of
Options:
A) Five Years B) Seven years C) Six years or sixty five years of age whichever is more D) Six years or
until he attains the age of sixty five whichever is earlier
Q113) Adult education’s main objective is to
Options:
A) Teach adults to be able to understand’ what they read B) Enable the adults to read and write C) Help
adults achieve literacy along it personal development D) Socialize the adults to move about freely
Q114) The idea of sense training in the Monte: method is based on
Options:
A) The theory of transfer of training B) The behaviouristic theory of education C) The stimulus response
theory of learning D) The pragmatic aspects of education theories
Q115) Which of the following skills/qualities is most important for a researcher?
Options:
A) Desire to discover the truth B) Communication skills C) Ability to gather data D) Ability to work
hard
Q116) The term “Manpower Needs” in any country requires the
Options:
A) People should be educated in accordance with specified jobs requirements B) Enrolments in
educational institutions should be decided according C) Capacities of men should be fully utilized for
education and training D) Education at all stages should be geared to promote the powers of the educates
Q117) Spinal nerves are usually
Options:
A) Mixed B) Efferent C) Afferent D) Sensory
Q118) A mixed cranial nerve is
Options:
A) Facial B) Abducens C) Auditory D) Oculomotor
Q119) Man is superior to other animals mainly due to
Options:
A) Large brain B) Free forelimbs C) Erect posture D) Front eyes
Q120) Vocationalisation of education has the object of
Options:
A) Preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge B) Giving more importance to vocation than
general education C) Converting liberal education into vocational education D) Creating an educational
bias among vocational people
Q121) The quorum of the Parliament is fixed at
Options:
A) one-tenth of the membership of the House B) one-third of the membership of the House C) one-half
of the membership of the House D) four-fifths of the membership of the House
Q122) The Directive Principles
Options:
A) aim at establishing welfare state of Gandhian conception B) aim at giving ideals to be incorporated at
a later stage C) aim at giving support to the , Fundamental Rights D) A and B only
Q123) In India the executive is responsible directly to the
Options:
A) Legislature B) President C) Judiciary D) Lok Sabha
Q124) The Rajya Sabha is
Options:
A) dissolved once in two years B) dissolved after every five years C) adjourned every six months D) not
subject to dissolution
Q125) Ministers in the Union Cabinet are appointed by the
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) President C) President of India on the advice of the Prime Minister D) None of
these
Q126) The Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister is responsible to
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) President C) Parliament D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Q127) What is the literal meaning of secularism?
Options:
A) Freedom to worship any God B) Death of religion C) Separation of religion from the state D) All of
these
Q128) The real powers in the Central Government are enjoyed, according to the Constitution of India by
the
Options:
A) President of India B) Vice-President of India C) Prime Minister of India D) Chief Ministers
Q129) The abbreviation SUPW means
Options:
A) Social Upsurge for Progress and Work B) Scientific Utilization for People and World C) Socially
Useful and Productive Work D) Solution of Utilitarian Problems of Work
Q130) If a student becomes unconscious in the class what will you do first?
Options:
A) Telephoning student’s parents and waiting for the B) Rushing to the principal’s office and canvassing
for help impatiently C) Giving first aid to him and trying to contact any nearby doctor D) Making
arrangement to send him to his home
Q131) Effective teaching means
Options:
A) Love, cooperation, sympathy, affection and encouragement give to students B) Corporal punishment
given to students at the time of moral of-fences C) Individualized instruction and open classroom
discussion D) Both A and C
Q132) School children are often victims of infection caused by
Options:
A) Mal-nutrition caused by undigested food particles B) Invasion of the body by the plant and animal
organisms C) Carelessness of teachers in providing activities D) Lack of proper exercises and drills
Q133) One can be a good teacher, if he
Options:
A) Has genuine interest in teaching B) knows his subjects C) knows how to control students D) Has
good expression
Q134) Drop outs are more likely to be
Options:
A) Vulnerable to the requirement of public assistance B) Unemployed C) Engaged in antisocial
behaviour D) All of these
Q135) Genu and splenium are associated with
Options:
A) Medulla oblongata’s B) Cerebrum C) Cerebellum D) Vermis
Q136) Parkinson's disease is of
Options:
A) Heart B) kidneys C) Brain D) Lungs
Q137) The professional requirements of a teacher as explained in the UNESCO publication is/ are
Options:
A) Innovativeness in approach and teaching strategies B) Mastery over the subject and competency for
teaching C) Justice to the profession D) All of the above
Q138) During depolarization, permeability of neuron increases towards
Options:
A) N+ B) Na+ C) Ag+ D) Mg++
Q139) Students should prefer those teachers who
Options:
A) Give important questions before examination B) Dictate notes in the class C) Can clear their
difficulties regarding subject-matter D) Are themselves disciplined
Q140) Students learn more from a teacher who is
Options:
A) One who communicates his ideas precisely and clearly? B) Affectionate C) Gently D) Hard working
Q141) The most important skill of teaching is
Options:
A) making students understand what the teacher says B) keeping students relaxed while teaching C)
Covering the course prescribed in his subject D) Taking classes regularly
Q142) A technical educational cess was recommended to be levied in our country’ the first time by
Options:
A) The Secondary Education Commission B) The International Education Commission C) The
University Education Commission D) The Technical Education Commission
Q143) The best way to react to wrong answer by a student is
Options:
A) To scold him for not having learnt lesson B) To explain why the answer is wrong C) To ignore the
wrong answer and pass on to the next question D) To ask another student to give the corn answer
Q144) The trial and error method of learning according to Thorndike could be classified as under
Options:
A) The principle of multiple responses B) The law of exercise C) The principle of partial activity D) The
principle of Associative learning
Q145) Liberalism in education, when it was claimed by universities of the world since the 19th century,
meant
Options:
A) Freedom to be given to education from the clutches of religion B) Favouring liberal education as
opposed to special education C) Academic freedom for teachers in instruction D) Administrative
freedom to universities to run the institution
Q146) The term ’Evaluation’ and ’Assessment’ could be discriminated as follows:
Options:
A) Assessment is limited to coverage achievement whereas evaluation is qualitative in character B)
Evaluation is concerned with the effective aspects of achievement whereas assessment judges the
cognitive aspects C) Evaluation involves the measurement as well as diagnosis of students’ attainments,
whereas assessment is concerned with only scholars-tic attainments. D) Assessment is an attempt to
measure the pupil as whole whereas evaluation is concerned with his achievement only
Q147) Naturalism in education means
Options:
A) Introduction of physical sciences in education B) Giving more importance to mind than to matter C)
Making discrimination between mind and consciousness D) Supporting both mind and consciousness
equally
Q148) In a class of ten pupils the grades in a spelling test were 97 − 97 − 97 − 9 − 9 − 8 − 76 − 73 − 6 −
60 The mode of those scores is
Options:
A) 92 B) 97 C) 97 minus 60 divided by D) the sum of the scores divided by 10
Q149) Of the following intelligence tests, the one which is individually administered is the
Options:
A) WISC B) Pintner-Cunningham Primary C) Army Alpha D) Kuhlman-Anderson
Q150) With respect to the development of skills, all of the following are correct except that
Options:
A) pupils of the same mental age should learn at the same rate B) group instruction facilitates the
learning process C) learning individual instruction is often required D) workbooks can be an invaluable
learning aid
Q151) The pair of terms incorrectly associated is
Options:
A) IQ-relationship between MA and CA B) validity-measure of consistency in testing C) inkblot-
projective testing D) median-the middle score
Q152) ”School is life, not a preparation for life.” This statement summarizes one important aspect of
educational philosophy of
Options:
A) John Dewey B) Robert Hutchins C) Mortimer Adler D) SI Hayakawa
Q153) Of the following, the educator who is not an advocate of radical educational reform
Options:
A) Postman B) Illich C) Bestor D) Kozol
Q154) All of the following are correct paired except
Options:
A) Froebel -progressivism B) Dewey –pragmatism C) Skinner–Gestalt D) Herbart–apperception
Q155) The most powerful Upper Chamber in the world is
Options:
A) American Senate B) British House of Lords C) Rajya Sabha of the Indian Republic D) None of the
above
Q156) The President of India is
Options:
A) The head of the State B) The head of the Government C) The head of the State as well as
Government D) All of these
Q157) As per Indian Protocol, who among the following ranks highest in the order of precedence?
Options:
A) Deputy Prime Minister B) Former President C) Governor of a State within his State D) Speaker of
Lok Shaba
Q158) A bill becomes a law when
Options:
A) Both Houses of Parliament approve it by requisite majority B) The Council of Ministers approves it
C) The President gives his assent D) The Supreme Court upholds its constitutional validity
Q159) Mainstreaming is a term associated with
Options:
A) career education B) education for the handicapped C) interage class groupings D) environmental
education
Q160) Most students in medieval universities learned by
Options:
A) laboratory experimentation B) reading the Bible C) listening to lectures D) studying in libraries
Q161) All of the following are advantages of teaching machines except
Options:
A) the control of cheating B) the tracking of errors C) the insurance of attention D) their universal use
for different kinds of programmes
Q162) Holding of elections for the village Panchayat is decided by
Options:
A) The Collector B) The Election Commission C) The Central Government D) The State Government
Q163) The industrial revolution that started in the West to begin with had the following effect on
education
Options:
A) Shifting the emphasis from the lower class culture to the middle class culture B) Shifting the centre
of gravity from the middle to the lower class culture C) Introduction of mass educational programmes
D) In production of vocationalisation of education
Q164) Any deterrents are negative in character
Options:
A) When they prevent children from doing wrong B) When they prevent doing wrong but do not reform
children C) When they are administered owing to some misunderstanding D) When they are
administered with a negative motive
Q165) Industries near the towns cause
Options:
A) Pollution B) Finished material C) Security D) Employment
Q166) Out of the following, in which lesson, a general rule is explained first and then, knowledge is
accumulated on the basis of that rule?
Options:
A) Deductive lesson B) Inductive lesson C) Developing lesson D) knowledge lesson
Q167) In the project education technique, the work load on the teacher is
Options:
A) very high B) comparatively low C) low D) nil
Q168) Why do you not support the five-stage method of Herbart?
Options:
A) In this, there is no scope for the individual diversity of students B) Under this, it is difficult to make
coordination between various subjects C) Under this, generalization is not required to be done while
teaching subjects like language, history, geography etc. D) all of these
Q169) Who is known as the father of educational psychology?
Options:
A) Pestology B) Devy C) Herbart D) Spencer
Q170) The educational system of today promotes ”educated unemployment”. The reason is that
Options:
A) education gives theoretical knowledge only B) professional education is not a part of education C)
the objective of education is not vivid D) all of these
Q171) In the school, “education on environment” can be imparted by
Options:
A) lectures B) articles C) sports D) adopting it ourselves
Q172) Indian Institute of Advanced studies is located in
Options:
A) Shimla B) Solan C) Dharmshala D) Chandigarh
Q173) Air Force Administrative College is situated in
Options:
A) Hyderabad B) Coimbatore C) Bidar D) Agra
Q174) Indian School of Mines is situated at
Options:
A) Patna (Bihar) B) Dhanbad (Jharkhand) C) Kolkata (W. Bengal) D) Guwahati (Assam)
Q175) What is the full form of MCA?
Options:
A) Ministry of Commerce & Agriculture B) Master of Computer Application C) Member Chartered
Accountant D) Master of Commerce & Arts
Q176) Immediate feedback is an essential characteristic of
Options:
A) team teaching B) teaching machines C) the Dalton Plan D) the project method
Q177) Of the following objectives of an elementary music programme, the one of lowest priority is
Options:
A) to expose children to a variety of musical compositions B) to prepare children for wise use of leisure
time C) to develop a group of performers for the holiday assemblies D) to provide children with
emotional outlets
Q178) With regard to readiness to read, all of these statements are true except that
Options:
A) some psychologists believe that a child is not ready to begin reading until he/ she has achieved a
mental age of about six years B) a strong desire to read is a determining factor C) a reading readiness
programme may begin for some children in kindergarten D) physical maturation is a crucial factor
Q179) It is absurd to say that there can be
Options:
A) A pollution due to noise B) Education causes pollution C) Transport vehicles cause pollution D) All
of the above
Q180) Which of the following will not hamper effective communication in the class?
Options:
A) An ambiguous statement B) A lengthy statement C) A precise statement D) A statement which
allows the listener to draw his own conclusions
Q181) If a student is constantly rubbing his eyes and is inattentive during blackboard work he is having
Options:
A) Adjustment problem B) Hearing problem C) Visual problem D) All of the above
Q182) Play therapy is adopted in the study of children in order to
Options:
A) Make the educational process joyful B) To understand the inner motives and complexes of children
C) Make education more activity centred D) Highlight the importance of play activities in education
Q183) The most powerful barrier of communication in the classroom is
Options:
A) Noise in the classroom B) Confusion on the part of the teacher C) Lack of teaching aids D) More
outside disturbance in the class room
Q184) It is said that there is an urgent need of articulation among schools and colleges, this problem of
articulation is concerned with
Options:
A) Provision of better administrative facilities B) Appointment of talented teachers C) Communication
and closer relationship among teachers D) Better facilities for in-service training of teachers
Q185) The most important challenge before a teacher is
Options
A) To maintain discipline in the classroom B) To make students do their home work C) To prepare
question paper D) To make teaching-learning process enjoyable
Q186) The idea that Basic Education is education through crafts
Options:
A) True as far as the rural areas are concerned B) The whole truth of the schemes C) The complete truth
even for urban areas D) True to some extent only because the concept is deeper
Q187) The joint sittings of the Union Parliament may be summoned for
Options:
A) Special address of the President B) Annual address of the President C) President’s occasional
messages of national significance D) Resolution of the dead lock between the two Houses on a non-
money bill
Q188) Who appoints the comptroller an Auditor-General of India?
Options:
A) The U.P.S.C. B) The President C) The Prime Minister D) The Parliament
Q189) A frequency distribution is best defined as the
Options:
A) number of scores above the median score B) number of pupils scoring above the median score C)
number of test items attend correctly by a majority of the class D) number of pupils who received each
score on a test
Q190) With regard to standardized testing, which of the following statements is correct?
Options:
A) the testing of intelligence began in Germany B) the Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children (WISC)
is a group test C) the Rorschach test uses inkblots D) the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is easy to
interpret
Q191) Heterogeneous grouping best serves the aims of a democratic society because
Options:
A) parents prefer it B) pupils prefer it C) it minimizes class distinctions D) it is the best environment for
learning
Q192) The Lok Sabha secretariat comes under the control of
Options:
A) Ministry of Home Affairs B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha C) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs D)
Prime Minister
Q193) Who examines the of the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India after it is laid before
Parliament?
Options:
A) Lok Sabha Speaker B) Estimates Committee C) Public Accounts Committee D) None of the above
Q194) Of great importance in determining the amount of transference that occurs in learning is the
Options:
A) IQ of the learner B) Knowledge of the teacher C) use of appropriate materials D) presence of
identical elements
Q195) Which one of the following High Courts has the Territorial Jurisdiction over Andaman and
Nicobar Islands
Options:
A) Andhra Pradesh B) Calcutta C) Madras D) Orissa
Q196) In case of absence of President and Vice-President, which of the following acts as the president
of country
Options:
A) Prime Minister B) Speaker of Lok Sabha C) Chief Justice of India D) Leader of opposition
Q197) Which of the following subjects does not belong to the Union List?
Options:
A) Atomic Energy B) War and Peace C) Post office Savings Bank D) Public Health and Sanitation
Q198) President can be removed on charges o violating the Constitution by
Options:
A) No-confidence motion B) Impeachment C) Electoral College of Legislative Assemblies D) Prime
Minister
Q199) The term prejudice in a person is colored by
Options:
A) A hasty judgment about a situation with an unfavourable B) Judgment and assessment of a situation
without any favouritism C) Partial observation and acquaintance of a situation without any motives D)
Pre-judgment of a situation with a view to settle a conflict in haste
Q200) Suppose you are teaching in a minority college where castism and arrow mindedness victimize
you, for better adjustment there you should
Options:
A) Uplift the humanistic values beyond these narrow walls and develop scientific temper in your
students B) Rebel against such attitudes as it is against the norms of the India society C) Be submissive
there and save your job at all costs D) None of the above
Q201) Suppose you want to teach your students to develop factual knowledge of a subject. Which of the
following methods would be suitable in your opinion?
Options:
A) The demonstration method B) The lecturer method C) The heuristic method D) The source method
Q202) Judicial Review’ is the power of the higher court to declare unconstitutional any
I) Law passed by legislature II) Judgment of the lower court III) Order of the executive Choose the from
the following choices
Options:
A) I and II only B) III only C) I and III only D) I, II and III
Q203) How many types of emergency can be declared by the President of India?
Options:
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Q204) The retirement age of a Supreme Court Judge is
Options:
A) 55 years B) 58 years C) 62 years D) 65 years
Q205) The Prime Minister is
Options:
A) nominated by the President B) elected by the Chief Ministers of States C) is the leader of the
majority party of Lok Sabha D) is the leader of the majority party of Rajya Sabha
Q206) Why are the Fundamental Rights considered fundamental?
Options:
A) Necessary for the successful working of democratic institution B) Basic to the welfare, dignity and
happiness of the individual C) Constitution is based on these D) Only I and II
Q207) The President’s Rule is imposed in a State orid a Union Territory when the
Options:
A) Governor of a State or the Chief Commissioner or Governor advises the President to do so because
the Government in that State/Territory cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the
Constitution B) Chief Minister of a State requests to this effect C) Chief’ Justice of the State High Court
recommends through the Governor D) Prime Minister knows best
Q208) Agriculture, including research and education, falls in
Options:
A) State List B) Union List C) Concurrent List D) None of the above
Q209) Fundamental Rights of the citizens are
Options:
A) non-justifiable B) justifiable C) justifiable if the highest court feels it should be D) Some rights are
justifiable
Q210) Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens are contained in .......... Of the ’Indian Constitution’
Options:
A) part I B) part II C) part III D) part IV
Q211) Freedom of the Press as such
Options:
A) has been guaranteed by the Constitution B) has not been expressly guaranteed by the Constitution C)
both (a) and (b) D) None of the above
Q212) Administrative Law means
Options:
A) law passed by the Union B) law or rules made by the executive C) laws relating to administration of
non-Governmental institutions D) all the above
Q213) The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha sit jointly when
Options:
A) they like B) there is a disagreement between the two (Houses) C) the President summons both the
Houses D) they must meet when two years have lapsed after the last meeting
Q214) Who administers the Union Territories?
Options:
A) The President through the Administrators appointed by him’ B) The Prime Minister of India C) The
Law Minister, Government of India D) The Attorney-General of India
Q215) Directive Principles of State Policy aim at
Options:
A) ensuring individual liberty B) ensuring and strengthening the country’s independence C) protecting
the depressed classes D) providing social and economic base for genuine democracy in the country
Q216) Usually a Gram Panchayat is not responsible for
Options:
A) construction of village roads and tanks B) sanitation, maternity and child welfare C) financing of
agriculturists D) agricultural production
Q217) What does the Panchayati Raj System signify?
Options:
A) single-tier structure of local Government B) Double-tier system of self Government C) Three-tier
structure of local Govt. at the village, block and district level D) None of these
Q218) The Chairman and the members of State Public Service Commission are appointed by the
Options:
A) President B) Governor C) Chairman of UPSC D) Prime Minister
Q219) The function of the Panchayat Samiti is to
Options:
A) Deal with rural industrialization B) Deal with administration of justice at the Panchayat level C)
Implement community development project schemes D) Deal with financial matters of the Panchayat
Q220) Of the doctrine of immanence it can be said truthfully that it
Options:
A) Pictures the world as an unfriendly place B) Implies that knowledge of the good is in the world about
us C) distrusts the senses and unaided reason D) Supports Plato’s theory of reality
Q221) The sociologist feels that, if men expect to put an end to prejudice and race conflict, they will
have to give major attention to
Options:
A) Legislating human rights for minorities B) Putting into effect the ”melting pot theory” C) Re-
establishing ethnocentrism D) Remedying social abuses and reducing conflict
Q222) Boarding schools are considered to be better than the day schools because
Options:
A) They help children in their social development B) They are helpful in freeing parents from their
responsibilities C) They save the trouble for children to walk to school from homes D) They are meant
for homeless and parentless children
Q223) Which one of the following is an ODD statement?
Options:
A) Majority of teachers use lectures method B) knowledge is static C) Most of the classrooms are poorly
equipped D) One way interaction prevails in the classrooms
Q224) Which has the greatest potential for education through audio-visual means?
Options:
A) SITE programmes B) Teaching machine C) The language laboratory D) The Computer
Q225) Teaching in higher education implies
Options:
A) Asking questions in the class and conducting examinations B) Presenting the information given in
the text book C) Helping students to prepare for and pass the examination D) Helping students how to
learn
Q226) Any deterrents are negative in character
Options:
A) When they prevent children from doing wrong B) When they prevent doing wrong but do not reform
children C) When they are administered owing to some misunderstanding D) When they are
administered with a negative motive
Q227) The approach to the concept of learning was different for Dewey and White Head in the
following sense:
Options:
A) Dewey’s approach was logical whereas White Head’s approach was philosophical B) Dewey thought
of learning in pragmatic terms whereas White Head thought in terms of cultural aspects C) Dewey
thought of learning as an end in it where as White Head thought about it as a means D) Dewey thought
of learning in experimental terms while white Head thought of it in more esthetic terms.
Q228) Effective teaching, by and large is a function of
Options:
A) Teacher’s honesty B) Teacher’s scholarship C) Teacher’s making students learn and understand D)
Teacher likes for the job of teaching
Q229) Cultural pluralism is based on the concept that
Options:
A) America is the ”Melting Pot” for various foreign stocks B) The American culture for all C) It is
incompatible with democracy D) Our culture is variegated and dynamic, each group of immigrants
contributing towards its enrichment
Q230) To say that the adolescents are rebellions in nature, will be regarded by experts as
Options:
A) A misconception B) A necessary character at that stage C) And objective description of facts D) An
effect of the environment
Q231) The competency of a teacher can be judged on the basis
Options:
A) Length of service B) Publication of books C) Meeting needs of students D) Personality of teacher
Q232) A teacher who believes in the realistic philosophy of education would
Options:
A) Support strict control and supervision to make children understand human race and culture B) Not
allow control and pressure on students to learn what they want to learn C) Oppose supervision and
interference of the teacher with the interests of students. D) Allow full freedom to students in learning,
following a non-interference policy.
Q233) Liberalism in education, when it was claimed by universities of the world since the 19th century,
meant
Options:
A) Freedom to be given to education from the clutches of religion B) Favouring liberal education as
opposed to special education C) Academic freedom for teachers in instruction D) Administrative
freedom to universities to run the institution
Q234) My reaction to the statement: A good teacher is essentially a good researcher” is that this is
Options:
A) My firm belief B) Something find difficult to agree to C) Something which I accept only as an
opinion D) Only a hypothesis
Q235) The development of feelings of appreciation and interests come under the category of
Options:
A) Cognitive development of personality B) Cognitive developmental aspects C) Psycho-motor
development of emotions D) Affective aspects of development
Q236) The state of the psyche designated as super ego by the Psycho analysts, if found
Options:
A) In higher animal also B) Among human beings alone C) Among men practicing yogic exercises D)
Among men and animals as well
Q237) As an idealist, which of the following maxim would you think to correct about the problem of
discipline?
Options:
A) The child should be trained to practice restraint with only limited freedom B) Discipline should be
imposed from outsiders and teachers with full control C) The child should be allowed full-freedom
without any restraint D) The child is subjected to fear and control to train him to desist from doing
wrong
Q238) Fundamental duties of citizens were provided
Options:
A) Education department B) By the school principle C) h. r. D. Ministry D) In the Constitution of India
Q239) Afferent nerve Fibres carry impulses from
Options:
A) Effectors organs to CNS B) CNS to receptor C) Receptors to CNS D) CNS to muscles
Q240) Education cultivates faculties which are
Options:
A) Moral B) Aesthetic C) Intellectual D) All of these
Q241) Object of education according to Durkheim is
Options:
A) Cultivate physical activities B) Awaken the child to learn C) Games and competition D) All of the
above
Q242) Which of the following statement is in correct?
Options:
A) U.S.A., in the year 1937, the Federal Government felt the necessity of population education in order
to check the decline of population and to increase the same. But gradually that country felt the need of
such education in order to check the high growth of population. Thus the term population education is
applied either to increase or to de-crease the rate of growth of population as per the need of situation of a
nation of the world. B) ’Population Education’, which is one of the recent topics that we have introduced
in our syllabus, was first used in Sweden in 1935, when the population education commission of the
country to generate public awareness about the increase of the rate of growth C) The purpose of
population education is to develop awareness and understanding of the relations between population
growth and national development both in short and long run and to develop and understanding of the
consequences of individual decisions in the important area of reproductive behaviour . A population
awareness programme, there-fore, should be provided the facts of population dynamic, of family life, of
human reproduction that children will need. D) None of these
Q243) Nerve transmission is
Options:
A) Mechanical process B) Chemical process C) Biological process D) Physical process
Q244) In the Rajya Sabha, the States have been provided
Options:
A) Equal representation B) Representation on the ’basis of population C) Representation on the basis of
population and size D) Representation on the basis of size
Q245) The Controller and Auditor-General of India acts as the chief accountant and auditor for the
Options:
A) Union Government B) State Governments C) Union and State Governments D) Neither Union nor
State Governments
Q246) Education is a subject in the
Options:
A) Union list B) State list C) Concurrent list D) None of the lists
Q247) In which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj first introduced?
Options:
A) Rajasthan B) Gujarat C) Uttar Pradesh D) Bihar
Q248) Which Writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority to perform a
function that it was not performing?
Options:
A) Writ of certiorari B) Writ of Habeas Corpus C) Writ of Mandamus D) Writ of Quo Warrant
Q249) A ganglion connected with spinal reflex is present in
Options:
A) White matter around grey matter of spinal cord B) Dorsal root of a spinal nerve C) Ventral horn of
grey matter D) Ventral root of a spinal nerve
Q250) The student centred plan is most favourable in the matter of
Options:
A) Articulation B) Balance C) Continuity D) All of the above
Q251) The term ”Co-curricular activities” is a popular one for all educational institutions. Which of the
following would you regard as a co-curricular activity?
Options:
A) Debating competitions B) Collection of funds for school building C) Foot-ball matches D)
Tournaments
Q252) If a curriculum maker follows the subjective theory of values in education, he will’
Options:
A) Not insist on the inclusive of any subject in the curriculum if pupils or parents are not interested in it
B) Disregard the interests of children the parents for the inclusive of any subject in the curriculum C)
Implement the study of subject for its inherent values to fulfil the needs of students D) Care more for the
content aspects than for the methodological
Q253) Twelve pairs of ribs and twelve pairs of nerves occurs in
Options:
A) Fish B) Snake C) Frog D) Man
Q254) The interaction between teachers and students or between buyers and sellers is classified by the
sociologists as a social inter action of
Options:
A) The secondary type B) The multiple types C) The primary type D) The responsive type One
undertakes research
Q255) One undertakes research
Options:
A) To verify what has already been established B) To describe and explain a new phenomenon C) To
refute what has already been accepted as a fact D) To do one or the other of the above
Q256) Who realized the urgent need for the reform of rigid, lifeless, meaningless curriculum
Options:
A) Mahatma Gandhi B) Jawahar Lai Nehru C) Subhash Chandra Bose D) Lai Bahadur Shastri
Q257) An effective teacher adopts the norms of the:
Options:
A) Autocratic society B) Laissez-faire society C) Democratic society D) All of the above
Q258) The most desirable outcome of higher education is:
Options:
A) Acquisition of higher order thinking skills B) Training of individual C) Acquisition of knowledge D)
Increase in academic achievement
Q259) The tool that describes the degrees of dimensions being observed
Options:
A) Opinionnaire B) Rating scale C) Inventory D) Questionnaire
Q260) The educationist who stressed the social of education.
Options:
A) Froebel B) John Dewey C) Prof. Bagley D) Herbart
Q261) Intrinsic motivation means:
Options:
A) Desire to perform activities because they are rewarding B) To take lead to achieve goals C) Desire
that arises within the organism D) All of the above
Q262) Which one of the following is not considered as a Regional College of Education?
Options:
A) Mumbai B) Mysore C) Ajmer D) Bhopal
Q263) If majority of students in your class are weak you should:
Options:
A) Not care about the intelligent students B) keep your teaching slow C) keep your speed of teaching
fast D) keep your teaching slow along with some extra guidance
Q264) Lifelong learning' has developed because of:
Options:
A) Shortage of educational institutions B) Requirement of educated people C) Dynamics of knowledge
explosion D) Urge to learn more and more
Q265) While dealing with juvenile delinquents a teacher should:
Options:
A) Talk with them frankly and guide and channelize their potentialities in constructive ways B)
Complain to the principal against them C) Play them with filthy jokes D) None of the above
Q266) According to 'Herbert Spencer', education is:
Options:
A) Harmonious development B) Complete living aim C) Morality D) Drawing out of best
Q267) Use of telecast materials:
Options:
A) Reduces the burden of the teacher B) Increases retention power C) Enhances concentration and
learning D) All of the above
Q268) Stephen M.Corey is associated with:
Options:
A) None of the above B) Scientific research C) Action research D) Applied research
Q269) Classroom discipline can be maintained effectively by:
Options:
A) Providing a programme which is according to the need and interest of the pupils B) By putting on
fancy clothes in the classroom C) knowing the cause of indiscipline and handling it with stern hand D)
None of the above
Q270) Perception, Retention and recall are:
Options:
A) Task variables B) Receiver variables C) Source variables D) Message variables
Q271) A newcomer teacher who is maltreated in his class will deal with the students by:
Options:
A) Changing his class after consultation with the principal B) Improving his qualities and expressing it
before them in a good way C) Punishing them D) Giving them a threat of expulsion
Q272) National Institute of Education is situated at:
Options:
A) Kolkata B) Madras C) Delhi D) Mumbai
Q273) Which of the following is true about our modern evaluation system in university education?
Options:
A) It doesn't encourage the habit of regular study B) It doesn't encourage students to attend their classes
regularly C) it asses the acquisition of knowledge by cramming D) All of the above
Q274) The psychological aspects of the classroom is best managed by:
Options:
A) Counsellor B) Peers C) Class teacher D) Principal
Q275) Basic education is also known as:
Options:
A) New education policy B) Wardha education plan C) Essential education D) Universal education
Q276) Values are:
Options:
A) Intrinsic B) Ultimate C) Extrinsic D) All of the above
Q277) To gain popularity among students, teacher should:
Options:
A) Frequently organize tours B) Dictates notes while teaching C) Personally help them in their studies
D) Maintain good social relations
Q278) The statement 'value is that which satisfies human desire' is by:
Options:
A) Allport B) I..S Mill C) B. Russell D) W.H Urban
Q279) A student tries to solve a problem without any help from a teacher. The teacher should:
Options:
A) Pay no attention to her/him B) Scold him/her for foolishness C) Offer help to solve his problem D)
Appraise his/her individual effort
Q280) Informal education means:
Options:
A) Natural B) In artificial C) Artificial D) Artless
Q281) One can be a good teacher if she/he:
Options:
A) knows how to control students B) knows his/her subject C) Has genuine interest in teaching D) Has
good expression
Q282) The largest producers of highly educated man power.
Options:
A) NIEPA B) NAAC C) NCERT D) UGC
Q283) There will be better communication in a lecture if a teacher:
Options:
A) Prepares the notes well in advance and use them as a guide B) Talks extempore C) Reads from
prepared notes D) Talks extempore drawing examples from other disciplines
Q284) Which one of the following is not a professional education?
Options:
A) Nursing B) Teacher education C) Medicine D) None of the above
Q285) Effective teaching, is function of:
Options:
A) Teacher's honesty B) Teachers making students learn and understand C) Maintaining discipline in the
class D) Teachers liking for the job of teaching
Q286) Indian Institute of Advanced study is situated at:
Options:
A) Hyderabad B) Simla C) Madras D) Bangalore
Q287) Which of the following teaching method is more effective?
Options:
A) Deductive method B) Discussion method C) Lecture method D) Textbox method
Q288) UGC was established on:
Options:
A) 1958 B) 1949 C) 1953 D) 1935
Q289) One will have more chances of being successful as a teacher, if
Options:
A) He is trained in teaching B) He is competent enough in his subject C) He belongs to the family of
teachers D) He can organize his teaching material systematically and conveys the same effectively
Q290) Which is true in higher education?
Options:
A) Right pupils receive right education B) All cannot learn C) All can learn, but all do not learn D) All
can learn, so all learn
Q291) Which of the following is most important for a teacher?
Options:
A) School B) Students C) Discipline D) Teaching
Q292) An effective teacher:
Options:
A) Is a strict disciplinarian B) Is a continuous learner C) Is the master of the subject D) Uses many
teaching aids
Q293) If a principal of your college, charge you with the act of negligence of duties, how would you
behave with him?
Options:
A) You would neglect him B) You would take a tough stand against the charges C) You would take
revenge by giving physical and mental agony to him D) You would keep yourself alert in discharging
your duties
Q294) Which one of the following is not a Central University?
Options:
A) Madras University B) Viswa Bharathi Shanthiniketha C) Aligarh Muslim University D) Banaras
Hindu University
Q295) Why will you ask questions from students during the course of a lecture?
Options:
A) To learn which one of the students is the brightest one B) To learn whether students are
understanding the lecture or not C) Are the students carefully listening to your lecture D) To assist the
students
Q296) The learning theory 'progressivism' is associated with:
Options:
A) Montessori B) Rousseau C) Dewey D) Froebel
Q297) Education is a subject in the:
Options:
A) State list B) Union list C) Concurrent list D) None of the above
Q298) The teacher's major contribution towards the maximum development of the child is through:
Options:
A) Provides a variety of learning experiences B) Teaching the prescribed curriculum C) Explaining
everything D) Strict reinforcement of academic standards
Q299) Micro teaching is for:
Options:
A) Developing skills of learning B) Developing teaching skills C) Developing proficiency in subjects D)
All the above
Q300) The first important step in teaching is:
Options:
A) knowing the background of students B) Planning beforehand C) Organizing materials to be taught D)
None of these
Q301) Discussion in the class will be more effective if the topic of discussion is:
Options:
A) Informed to the students well in advance B) Written on the board without introducing it C) Not
introduced D) Stated just before the start of discussion
Q302) The innovative system for major education to learn while learn is:
Options:
A) Non-formal education B) Open Universities C) Informal education D) Navodaya Vidyalayas
Q303) Which of the years, IGNOU was set up?
Options:
A) 1986 B) 1958 C) 1953 D) 1985
Q304) Which commission has recommended the formulation of UGC in India?
Options:
A) National Planning Commission B) University Education Commission C) kothari Commission D)
None of the above
Q305) The main function of UGC:
Options:
A) Management B) Finance C) Research D) All the above
Q306) A university teacher should normally concentrate on:
Options:
A) Research B) Guidance C) Teaching D) All the above
Q307) Who contributed mainly for the establishment of the university at Pondicherry?
Options:
A) R.N.Tagore B) j. l. Nehru C) Sri Aurobindo D) Vivekananda.
Q308) Who founded the 'Asiatic Society of Bengal'?
Options:
A) David Hare B) William Jones C) William Carey D) Raja Ram Mohan Ray
Q309) This is what he should do'. Is a sentence known as:
Options:
A) Atidesa B) Upadesa C) Both D) Neither
Q310) Internship is must for teacher education, because it provides:
Options:
A) Complete School Environment B) Content Courses C) Practical Courses D) Result Preparation.
Q311) Who said for nearly half a century, the examination has been recognized as one of the worst
features of Indian Education.
Options:
A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad B) Dr. Radha Krishna C) Dr. Laxman swamy Mudaliar D) Dr. tara chand
Q312) When was National Policy on education formulated?
Options:
A) Aug, 1986 B) Jan, 1986 C) March, 1988 D) Oct, 1988.
Q313) Who gave the slogan 'Each one teach one'?
Options:
A) Dr. S. Radha Krishnan B) Mahatma Gandhi C) Dr. Khurana D) Maulana Azad.
Q314) The wandering teachers during the Vedic age were called?
Options:
A) Gurus B) Atmans C) Charakas D) Brahmana
Q315) The Name of great ancient Nalanda University library was?
Options:
A) Buddha B) Langha C) Dharmganj D) Dharmartha.
Q316) Macaulay wrote his famous minute on educational policy on?
Options:
A) 16th February B) 8th February C) 1st February D) 2nd February
Q317) Vidhayak sentences can be classified as:
Options:
A) Upadesaka B) Atidesa C) Both D) Neither
Q318) In which year a committee of Public instruction was set up?
Options:
A) 1821 a. d. B) 1822 a. d. C) 1823 a. d. D) 1824 a. d.
Q319) Which of the following is not an advisory board of education?
Options:
A) CABE B) HRD C) UGC D) NCERT.
Q320) Who govern the academic policies of the collages of education?
Options:
A) UGC B) NEPA C) NCTE D) NCERT
Q321) Higher education was given during Vedic Period in:
Options:
A) Gurukuls B) Charan C) Shakhas D) All above
Q322) Which University was not established during 1854-1858:
Options:
A) Calcutta University B) Madras University C) Punjab University D) Bombay
Q323) University Areas of autonomy are:
Options:
A) Selection of students B) Planning for academic work C) Progress and Promotion of teachers D) All
above
Q324) Cause of falling universities standard are:
Options:
A) Lack of Facilities B) Traditional methods of teaching C) Lack of Library D) All above.
Q325) Evaluation of the teacher-trainee should be in the field of:
Options:
A) Education Theory B) Community Work C) Methodology D) All above
Q326) For the revival of Vedic learning, who raised the Slogan of 'Back to the Vedas '?
Options:
A) Swami Dayanand Saraswati B) Swami Vivekanand C) Rabindra Nath Tagore D) Keshav Chandra
Sen
Q327) How many articles are there in National Policy on Education 1986?
Options:
A) 150 B) 157 C) 160 D) 158
Q328) During Vedic Age pupil were called?
Options:
A) Brahmana B) Brahmachari C) Charka D) None of these.
Q329) The 'Upanayana' of given was closed in?
Options:
A) 500 AD B) 600 AD C) 700 AD D) 800 AD
Q330) Who raised the slogan 'Each one teach one'?
Options:
A) j. l Nehru B) Mahatma Gandhi. C) Maulana Azad. D) None of these.
Q331) At the time of independence, there were how many universities?
Options:
A) Ten B) Fifteen C) Eighteen D) Twenty.
Q332) The future of education in India depends on:
Options
A) Society B) Government C) Family D) Economy
Q333) Which thinker have Not accepted that the state has an ethical purpose?
Options:
A) Karl Marx B) Gandhi. C) Aristotle D) Laski
Q334) Which year a committee on decentralized management of Education was appointed?
Options:
A) Aug, 1992 B) Feb, 1993 C) March, 1993 D) April, 1993
Q335) In Which year 'grant-in-aid' system was introduced?
Options:
A) 1858 B) 1852 C) 1857 D) 1851
Q336) When was Indian University Commission Appointed?
Options:
A) 1463 B) 758 C) 829 D) 11047
Q337) The method of summated rating for increasing attitudes was development by:
Options:
A) Thurstone in 1932 B) Chave in 1929 C) Likert D) Thurstone and Chave both as co-authors.
Q338) The Charter Act of 1813 Provided how much as annual expenditure for the revival and promotion
of literature in India?
Options:
A) 1 lakh rupees B) 2 lakh rupees C) 3 lakh rupees D) 4 lakh rupees
Q339) Who gave his reports on general education in 1937?
Options:
A) AN Jha B) Wood C) Mudaliar D) Dr. Zakir Hussan
Q340) In Which year the review committee on curriculum was appointed?
Options:
A) 1977 B) 1976 C) 1978 D) 1979
Q341) Where is N.d. t. Women University situated?
Options:
A) Calcutta B) Bombay C) Madras D) Delhi
Q342) When was Ishwar-bahi J. Patel Committee was appointed?
Options:
A) 1975 B) 1976 C) 1977 D) 1978
Q343) During 1901-02 there were how many arts and professional colleges in India?
Options:
A) 81 B) 91 C) 181 D) 191
Q344) Sankhya theory of education is known as:
Options:
A) Brahman Parinamavada B) Prikriti Parinamavada C) Both of these D) Neither
Q345) Chairman of Revised national policy of education committee was:
Options:
A) Ram Murti B) Man Mohan Singh C) Janardhan Reddy D) Murli Manohar Joshi
Q346) N.P.E document consists of:
Options:
A) Three Parts B) Seven Parts C) Twelve Parts D) Twenty Parts
Q347) Who founded Royal Asiatic Society of Bengal' in Calcutta in 1784?
Options:
A) Warren Hasting B) Johan Duncan C) William Jones D) Sir Richard
Q348) In Which year the Indian university act was passed?
Options:
A) 1901 B) 1902 C) 1903 D) 1904
Q349) When was 'National open school' established?
Options:
A) 1975 B) 1986 C) 1989 D) 1990
Q350) What was the title of teacher in the Vedic period?
Options:
A) Acharya B) Guru C) Siksha D) Brahma
Q351) The term of reference of Mudaliar Commission was:
Options:
A) Primary Education B) Secondary Education C) Higher Education D) All-Round Education
Q352) According to wood's Dispatch the medium of instruction should be:
Options:
A) Only English B) Only Sanskrit C) Only Vernaculars D) English and Vernaculars
Q353) Vallabhi was a famous education was registered as a society in?
Options:
A) 500 a. d. B) 600 a. d. C) 700 a. d. D) 800 a. d.
Q354) Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan was registered as a Society in?
Options:
A) 23743 B) 24077 C) 24108 D) 01-12-1966
Q355) Work-Experience is a training for:
Options:
A) Cooperation in have work. B) Participation in factory C) Participation in productive work for earning
D) All above
Q356) Expenditure in primary education in VII th-Plan.
Options:
A) 2849 Chores of rupees B) 1832 Chores of rupees C) 1083 Chores of rupees D) 7633 Chores of rupees
Q357) Most of the important factor in educational reconstruction according to the commission is:
Options:
A) Teacher B) Building C) Finance D) Supervision
Q358) What was the medium of education in Vedic period?
Options:
A) Pali B) Sanskrit C) Prakrit D) Local Dialect
Q359) Where is Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library Situated?
Options:
A) Patna B) Chandigarh C) Jhansi D) Lucknow
Q360) Which Commission recommended the induction of applied science and technology in the
University Course?
Options:
A) Mudaliar Commission B) Sadler Commission C) Hunter Commission D) Indian University
Commission.
Q361) Which of the following org. is associated with HRD ministry
Options:
A) INDEST B) National Book Trust C) National Bal Bhavan D) All of above
Q362) What is the purpose of Jan Sikshan Sansthan?
Options:
A) Provide vocational training to non-literate, neo-literate and school dropouts. B) Provide basic
education to illiterate adults. C) Create awareness about health and reproduction among rural people D)
None of above.
Q363) Correct chronological order? (older to newer)
Options:
A) Mid Day meal, RTE, SSA B) SSA, Mid Day Meal, RTE C) RTE, Mid Day meal, SSA D) Mid Day
Meal, SSA, RTE.
Q364) What is the purpose of Jalmani Yojana?
Options:
A) Install water purifiers in remote hamlets with population less than 500 B) Installation of water
purifiers in rural schools. C) Provide drinking water in desert areas D) Provide subsidy to farmers for
installing drip irrigation system.
Q365) What is the primary aim of Dhanlakshmi Yojana?
Options:
A) Prevent child marriages. B) Promote intercaste marriages C) Change the mentality of seeing girl
child as a financial burden. D) Provide scholarship to bright girl students to pursue PG or Ph. d
Q366) Which among the following Indian ministry coordinates with WIPO?
Options:
A) HRD B) External affairs C) Commerce and industries. D) Science and technology
Q367) UGC is a
Options:
A) Statutory organization B) Attached office of HRD ministry C) Constitutional body D) Subordinate
office of HRD ministry
Q368) Who releases Educational content via Gyan Darshan and Gyan Vani?
Options:
A) Education ministry B) IGNOU, NCERT C) National Bal Bhavan D) None of Above.
Q369) Who is responsible for conducting All India Pre-Dental entrance test?
Options:
A) AICTE B) Medical Council of India C) Dental Council of India D) CBSE
Q370) Who among the following looks into the Minimum qualification for appointment of teachers?
Options:
A) UGC B) HRD ministry C) NCERT D) National council for teacher education
Q371) What is the purpose of Bal Shree scheme?
Options:
A) Identify creative children and nurture them. B) Provide extra protein and iron supplements to kids
suffering from Malnutrition C) Provide free medical checkup in Government schools. D) None of above.
Q372) Purpose of Mahila Samakhya scheme?
Options:
A) Provide incentives to female graduates to join teaching profession. B) Provide reservation to females
in Government college lecturer jobs. C) Empower rural women by educating them. D) None of above.
Q373) Target beneficiaries of SABLA scheme are
Options:
A) Dowry victims B) Adolescent girls C) Rural women D) All of above.
Q374) The Kendriya vidhyalaya are meant for
I Wards of Transferable state Government employees
II Wards of Transferable central Government employees
III Wards of Defence personnel
V Bright students from naxal affected areas
Options:
A) Only I and IV B) Only II and III C) Only I, II and IV D) Only II
Q375) Correct statements about Rahstriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan (RMSA)
I Provide free and compulsory education to high school children.
II Increase the high school enrolment rate from 52% to 75%
Options:
A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) none of above
Q376) What was the purpose of 86 Constitutional amendment act?
I Make right to education a fundamental right
II Impose duty on parents and guardians to provide for education to their children.
Options:
A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) none of the above
Q377) Correct Statement
I) 93rd amendment inserted article 21/A and 51A(K) in the Constitution.
II) 86 amendment modified article 15 of the Constitution.
Options:
A) Only I B) Only II C) Both I and II D) None of the above
Q378) Correct chronological order?
Options:
A) IGNOU, UGC, NCERT B) NCERT, UGC, IGNOU C) UGC, NCERT, IGNOU D) GNOU, NCERT,
UGC
Q379) Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India safe guards the rights of
Minorities to establish and run educational in-situations of their own liking?
Options:
A) Article 19 B) Article 29 C) Article 30 D) Article 31
Q380) Which one of the following is 28th state of India
Options:
A) Uttarakhand B) Jharkhand C) Chhattisgarh D) None of these
Q381) The effective means in education communication is
Options:
A) Black Board Writing B) Audio-Visual means C) Audio means D) Visual means
Q382) The Dalton Scheme of Education is useful for which one of the following?
Options:
A) For infants B) For little children C) For older children D) For all of these
Q383) The most powerful upper chamber in the world is:
Options:
A) American senate B) British House of Lords C) Rajya Sabha of Indian Republic D) None of these
Q384) Which of the following standing committee of Parliament has no Member of Parliament from
Rajya Sabha?
Options:
A) Hawai Island B) Greenland C) Kamchatka D) None of these
Q385) The Government of India introduced Bharat Ratna and Padmashree awards under
Options:
A) Article 18 of the constitution B) Article 20 of the constitution C) Article 17 of the constitution D)
Article 16 of the constitution
Q386) Election of Rural and Urban local bodies are conducted and ultimately supervised by
Options:
A) Election Commission of India B) State Election Commission C) District Collector and District
Magistrate D) Concerned Returning Officer
Q387) When was the All India Radio (AIR) was adopted?
Options:
A) June 8th 1936 B) July 17th 19 C) June 17th 193 D) July 8th 1949
Q388) What is the full form of IPCC?
Options:
A) International Panel on climate change B) International Panel on carbon consumption C)
Intergovernmental Panel o Climate D) None of these
Q389) The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to
Options:
A) the Speaker of Lok Sabha B) the Comptroller and Auditor General C) the President of India D) the
Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
Q390) The biggest news agency of India is
Options:
A) PTI B) UNI C) NANAP D) Samachar Bharati
Q391) To educate according to nature means
Options:
A) to come back to nature as op-pose to mechanical life B) to educate in accordance with the law of
nature of human development C) to study natural laws and apply them to educational process. D) All of
the above
Q392) The aim of vocationalisation of education is:
Options:
A) preparing students for a vocation along with knowledge B) converting liberal education into
vocational education C) giving more importance to vocational than general education D) making liberal
education job-oriented
Q393) All of the following tend to erode local control of education in favour of national control, except
the
Options:
A) National Science Foundation B) National Institute of Mental health C) College Entrance
Examination Board D) National Defence education Act
Q394) India’s first Defence University is set up in
Options:
A) Haryana B) Delhi C) Punjab D) Uttar Pradesh
Q395) Which of the following Institutes is situated in Karikudi (Tamil Nadu)?
Options:
A) Central Electro Chemical Re-search Institute B) Central Marine Fish Research institute C) Central
Plantation Crop Research Institute D) None of these
Q396) National Anthem “Jan-gana-mana” was composed by
Options:
A) Madam Cama B) Surendranath Chatterji C) Bankimchandra Chatterji D) Rabindranath Tagore
Q397) Universities having central campus for imparting education are called:
Options:
A) Central Universities B) Deemed Universities C) Residential Universities D) Open Universities
Q398) Disputes regarding the election of Vice President are decided by
Options:
A) the Speaker B) the President C) the Parliament D) the Supreme Court
Q399) Use of radio for higher education is based on the presumption of:
Options:
A) Enriching curriculum based instruction B) Replacing teacher in the long run C) Everybody having
access to a radio set D) Other means of instruction getting out-dated
Q400) When was the 1st Indian postal stamp was issued?
Options:
A) 1937 B) 1876 C) 1854 D) 1852

Answers:
Q1) A, Q2) A, Q3) B, Q4) A, Q5) C, Q6) B, Q7) D, Q8) A, Q9) A, Q10) C, Q11) C, Q12) C, Q13) A,
Q14) C, Q15) D, Q16) D, Q17) A, Q18) D, Q19) D, Q20) C, Q21) D, Q22) B, Q23) C, Q24) A, Q25)
D, Q26) D, Q27) A, Q28) D, Q29) A, Q30) C, Q31) D, Q32) C, Q33) B, Q34) A, Q35) C, Q36) C,
Q37) A, Q38) B, Q39) A, Q40) D, Q41) D, Q42) C, Q43) C, Q44) A, Q45) A, Q46) D, Q47) A, Q48)
B, Q49) C, Q50) D, Q51) A, Q52) A, Q53) A, Q54) D, Q55) D, Q56) B, Q57) A, Q58) B, Q59) C,
Q60) D, Q61) D, Q62) B, Q63) D, Q64) B, Q65) C, Q66) C, Q67) A, Q68) D, Q69) B, Q70) C, Q71)
A, Q72) D, Q73) A, Q74) A, Q75) B, Q76) A, Q77) A, Q78) B, Q79) A, Q80) D, Q81) B, Q82) D,
Q83) B, Q84) D, Q85) C, Q86) C, Q87) C, Q88) C, Q89) B, Q90) A, Q91) D, Q92) D, Q93) D, Q94)
A, Q95) C, Q96) C, Q97) A, Q98) A, Q99) D, Q100) D, Q101) A, Q102) A, Q103) A, Q104) A,
Q105) C, Q106) C, Q107) A, Q108) C, Q109) C, Q110) C, Q111) D, Q112) D, Q113) C, Q114) A,
Q115) D, Q116) A, Q117) B, Q118) C, Q119) D, Q120) A, Q121) A, Q122) D, Q123) A, Q124) D,
Q125) C, Q126) C, Q127) C, Q128) C, Q129) C, Q130) C, Q131) D, Q132) B, Q133) A, Q134) D,
Q135) C, Q136) C, Q137) D, Q138) C, Q139) C, Q140) D, Q141) A, Q142) A, Q143) B, Q144) A,
Q145) C, Q146) C, Q147) A, Q148) B, Q149) A, Q150) A, Q151) B, Q152) A, Q153) C, Q154) C,
Q155) A, Q156) A, Q157) C, Q158) C, Q159) B, Q160) C, Q161) D, Q162) D, Q163) B, Q164) B,
Q165) A, Q166) A, Q167) A, Q168) D, Q169) C, Q170) B, Q171) D, Q172) A, Q173) B, Q174) B,
Q175) B, Q176) B, Q177) C, Q178) D, Q179) B, Q180) C, Q181) C, Q182) B, Q183) B, Q184) C,
Q185) D, Q186) D, Q187) D, Q188) B, Q189) D, Q190) C, Q191) C, Q192) C, Q193) C, Q194) D,
Q195) B, Q196) C, Q197) D, Q198) B, Q199) A, Q200) A, Q201) B, Q202) C, Q203) B, Q204) D,
Q205) C, Q206) D, Q207) A, Q208) A, Q209) B, Q210) C, Q211) B, Q212) B, Q213) B, Q214) A,
Q215) D,
Q216) C, Q217) C, Q218) B, Q219) C, Q220) B, Q221) A, Q222) A, Q223) A, Q224) A, Q225) D,
Q226) B, Q227) D, Q228) D, Q229) D, Q230) A, Q231) C, Q232) A, Q233) C, Q234) A, Q235) D,
Q236) B, Q237) A, Q238) D, Q239) A, Q240) D, Q241) D, Q242) D, Q243) D, Q244) B, Q245) C,
Q246) C, Q247) A, Q248) C, Q249) B, Q250) A, Q251) A, Q252) C, Q253) A, Q254) A, Q255) A,
Q256) A, Q257) C, Q258) A, Q259) B, Q260) B, Q261) D, Q262) A, Q263) D, Q264) C, Q265) A,
Q266) B, Q267) C, Q268) C, Q269) A, Q270) C, Q271) B, Q272) C, Q273) D, Q274) C, Q275) B,
Q276) D, Q277) C, Q278) D, Q279) D, Q280) A, Q281) C, Q282) D, Q283) D, Q284) D, Q285) B,
Q286) B, Q287) B, Q288) C, Q289) D, Q290) A, Q291) B, Q292) B, Q293) D, Q294) A, Q295) C,
Q296) D, Q297) C, Q298) A, Q299) B, Q300) A, Q301) A, Q302) B, Q303) D, Q304) B, Q305) D,
Q306) D, Q307) C, Q308) B, Q309) B, Q310) A, Q311) A, Q312) A, Q313) B, Q314) C, Q315) C,
Q316) D, Q317) C, Q318) C, Q319) B, Q320) C, Q321) D, Q322) C, Q323) D, Q324) D, Q325) D,
Q326) A, Q327) B, Q328) B, Q329) B, Q330) B, Q331) B, Q332) B, Q333) A, Q334) B, Q335) C,
Q336) B, Q337) D, Q338) A, Q339) B, Q340) B, Q341) B, Q342) C, Q343) D, Q344) B, Q345) C,
Q346) C, Q347) C, Q348) D, Q349) C, Q350) A, Q351) B, Q352) D, Q353) C, Q354) B, Q355) C,
Q356) A, Q357) A, Q358) B, Q359) C, Q360) B, Q361) A, Q362) A, Q363) D, Q364) B, Q365) C,
Q366) C, Q367) A, Q368) B, Q369) D, Q370) D, Q371) A, Q372) C, Q373) B, Q374) B, Q375) B,
Q376) C, Q377) B, Q378) C, Q379) C, Q380) B, Q381) B, Q382) C, Q383) A, Q384) B, Q385) A,
Q386) B, Q387) A, Q388) C, Q389) A, Q390) A, Q391) B, Q392) D, Q393) B, Q394) A, Q395) A,
Q396) D, Q397) B, Q398) D, Q399) B, Q400) D